MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh with Answers

Give yourself a jump start in learning NCERT Syllabus for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh. This post contains Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh with Answers Bhag 2 to all important and difficult questions that appear in the year’s examination, making it easier than ever before! Check out CBSE Class 10 Hindi स्पर्श MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers today if you want greater knowledge when taking your exams later this year at home or abroad.

Class 10 Hindi Sparsh MCQs Questions with Answers

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  11. डायरी का एक पन्ना Class 10 MCQ
  12. तताँरा-वामीरो कथा Class 10 MCQ
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  16. पतझर में टूटी पत्तियाँ Class 10 MCQ
  17. कारतूस Class 10 MCQ

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kritika with Answers

Give yourself a jump start in learning NCERT Syllabus for Class 10 Hindi Kritika. This post contains Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kritika with Answers Bhag 2 to all important and difficult questions that appear in the year’s examination, making it easier than ever before! Check out CBSE Class 10 Hindi कृतिका MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers today if you want greater knowledge when taking your exams later this year at home or abroad.

Class 10 Hindi Kritika MCQs Questions with Answers

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  1. माता का आँचल Class 10 MCQ
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  3. साना-साना हाथ जोड़ि Class 10 MCQ
  4. एही ठैयाँ झुलनी हेरानी हो रामा! Class 10 MCQ
  5. मैं क्यों लिखता हूँ? Class 10 MCQ

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij with Answers

Give yourself a jump start in learning NCERT Syllabus for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij. This post contains Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij with Answers Bhag 2 to all important and difficult questions that appear in the year’s examination, making it easier than ever before! Check out CBSE Class 10 Hindi क्षितिज MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers today if you want greater knowledge when taking your exams later this year at home or abroad.

Class 10 Hindi Kshitij MCQs Questions with Answers

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  1. सूरदास के पद Class 10 MCQ
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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi with Answers Kshitij, Kritika, Sparsh, Sanchayan Bhag 2

Are you looking for the perfect way to study Class 10 Hindi? You came to the right page. Our team has figured out how best to learn Hindi, with Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi with Answers of Kshitij, Kritika, Sparsh, Sanchayan Bhag 2! We researched all of this year’s CBSE Class 10 Hindi MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers of क्षितिज, कृतिका, स्पर्श, संचयन भाग 2 as well so that we can make sure you’re ready for anything on test day. Go ahead and find Class 10 Hindi Objective Questions.

Class 10 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers क्षितिज, कृतिका, स्पर्श, संचयन भाग 2

Class 10 Hindi MCQs are helpful for students. Whether you’re taking the final exams or a competitive exam, this chapter-wise CBSE NCERT Class 10 Hindi MCQ Questions with Answers Pdf of Kshitij, Kritika, Sparsh, Sanchayan Bhag 2 will prepare you to answer any type of question about each chapter in an engaging way that is easy to understand. Click the links below and you can start practicing right away to perfection.

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  2. राम-लक्ष्मण-परशुराम संवाद Class 10 MCQ
  3. सवैया और कवित्त Class 10 MCQ
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  9. संगतकार Class 10 MCQ
  10. नेताजी का चश्मा Class 10 MCQ
  11. बालगोबिन भगत Class 10 MCQ
  12. लखनवी अंदाज़ Class 10 MCQ
  13. मानवीय करुणा की दिव्या चमक Class 10 MCQ
  14. एक कहानी यह भी Class 10 MCQ
  15. स्त्री शिक्षा के विरोधी कुतर्कों का खंडन Class 10 MCQ
  16. नौबतखाने में इबादत Class 10 MCQ
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MCQ for Class 10 Hindi Kritika with Answers

  1. माता का आँचल Class 10 MCQ
  2. जॉर्ज पंचम की नाक Class 10 MCQ
  3. साना-साना हाथ जोड़ि Class 10 MCQ
  4. एही ठैयाँ झुलनी हेरानी हो रामा! Class 10 MCQ
  5. मैं क्यों लिखता हूँ? Class 10 MCQ

MCQ for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh with Answers

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  2. मीरा के पद Class 10 MCQ
  3. दोहे Class 10 MCQ
  4. मनुष्यता Class 10 MCQ
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  6. मधुर-मधुर मेरे दीपक जल Class 10 MCQ
  7. तोप Class 10 MCQ
  8. कर चले हम फ़िदा Class 10 MCQ
  9. आत्मत्राण Class 10 MCQ
  10. बड़े भाई साहब Class 10 MCQ
  11. डायरी का एक पन्ना Class 10 MCQ
  12. तताँरा-वामीरो कथा Class 10 MCQ
  13. तीसरी कसम के शिल्पकार शैलेंद्र Class 10 MCQ
  14. गिरगिट Class 10 MCQ
  15. अब कहाँ दूसरे के दुख से दुखी होने वाले Class 10 MCQ
  16. पतझर में टूटी पत्तियाँ Class 10 MCQ
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MCQ for Class 10 Hindi Sanchayan with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 10 Biology, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in Class 10 Biology and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

How do Organisms Reproduce? Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving How do Organisms Reproduce? Multiple Choice Questions of Class 10 Science Chapter 8 MCQ can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on How do Organisms Reproduce? Class 10 Biology with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Assertion: In human beings, the female. play a major role in determining the sex of the offspring.
Reason: Women have two X chromosomes.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(d) A is false but R is true.


Question 2.
Assertion: In male reproductive system, transport of sperm takes place in a fluid which also provide nutrition.
Reason: Protective glands and seminal vesicles secret in the vas deferens.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


Question 3.
A pair of duct arising from testis, which carry sperms are
(a) fallopian tube
(b) vas deferens
(c) oviduct
(d) urethra

Answer

(b) vas deferens


Question 4.
Many unicellular organisms reproduce by the process of
(a) fission
(b) ovulation
(c) regeneration
(d) non-disjunction

Answer

(a) fission


Question 5.
When a sperm is deposited into the vagina which route does it travel?
(a) Vagina → Oviduct → Uterus → Cervix
(b) Vagina → Ovary → Uterus → Oviduct
(c) Vagina → Cervix → Uterus → Oviduct
(d) Vagina → Uterus → Cervix → Oviduct

Answer

(c) Vagina → Cervix → Uterus → Oviduct


Question 6.
At the time of entering into ovule, pollen tube has
(a) three male nuclei
(b) two male nuclei
(c) one gamete nucleus
(d) four male gametes

Answer

(b) two male nuclei


Question 7.
Which of this is seminal fluid?
(a) Prostate gland
(b) Cowper’s gland
(c) Seminal vesicle
(d) all of these

Answer

(c) Seminal vesicle


Question 8.
When the foetus is growing inside the uterus it needs nutrients. Which part provides these nutrients?
(a) Placenta
(b) Amniotic sac
(c) Oviduct
(d) Uterus

Answer

(a) Placenta


Question 9.
The ability to reproduce is lost in a female after
(a) fertilisation
(b) menstruation
(c) gamete formation
(d) menopause

Answer

(d) menopause


Question 10.
Which part of the flower forms the fruit?
(a) Whole flower
(b) Only stamens and carpel
(c) Only ovary
(d) Only carpel

Answer

(c) Only ovary


Question 11.
Anemophily is the pollination by:
(a) Birds
(b) Rain
(c) insects
(d) Wind

Answer

(d) Wind


Question 12.
Which is the most common method of reproduction in majority of fungi and bacteria?
(a) Budding
(b) Spore formation
(c) Binary fission
(d) Multiple fission

Answer

(b) Spore formation


Question 13.
A common feature of reproduction in Amoeba, spirogyra and yeast is that:
(a) Asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction
(b) Asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction
(c) Asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(d) Asexual reproduction involves only one parent

Answer

(d) Asexual reproduction involves only one parent.


Question 14.
There is a greater possibility for the evolution of a new species in organisms which reproduce by
(a) binary fission
(b) budding
(c) fertilisation
(d) regeneration

Answer

(c) fertilisation


Question 15.
The period during adolescence when the reproductive tissues begin to mature is called
(a) ovyfetion
(b) puberty
(c) germination
(d) propagation

Answer

(b) puberty


Question 16.
Anemophily is the pollination by –
(a) Birds
(b) Rain
(c) insects
(d) Wind

Answer

(d) Wind


Question 17.
In man, fertilization of ovum takes place in
(a) Vagina
(b) ovary
(c) uterus
(d) Fallopian tubes

Answer

(d) Fallopian tubes


Question 18.
The flower of the Hibiscus plant is
(a) bisexual
(b) unisexual
(c) neuter
(d) very small

Answer

(a) bisexual


Question 19.
The seed that contains the future plant is called the
(a) cotyledons
(b) seed coat
(c) germ cells
(d) embryo

Answer

(d) embryo


Question 20.
Spirogyra reproduce by
(a) budding
(b) fragmentation
(c) regeneration
(d) fission

Answer

(b) fragmentation


Question 21.
In vegetative reproduction, the new individuals are genetically –
(a) Similar
(b) Dissimilar
(c) Abnormal
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Similar


Question 22.
During favourable conditions, Amoeba reproduces by
(a) multiple fission
(b) binary fission
(c) budding
(d) fragmentation

Answer

(b) binary fission


Question 23.
The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is called
(a) budding
(b) multiple fission
(c) binary fission
(d) reduction division

Answer

(b) multiple fission


Question 24.
Assertion: Amoeba reproduced by fission
Reason: All unicellular organisms reproduced by asexual method.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


Question 25.
Assertion: Ovary releases one egg every month.
Reason: The lining of uterus is always thick and spongy.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(c) A is true but R is false.


Question 26.
The anther contains
(a) Sepals
(b) Ovules
(c) Carpel
(d) Pollen grains.

Answer

(d) Pollen grains.


Question 27.
In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the
(a) process of mating
(b) formation of sperms
(c) easy transfer of gametes
(d) secretion of estrogen

Answer

(b) formation of sperms


Question 28.
The fertilisation of human egg by the sperm takes place in
(a) vagina
(b) uterus
(c) ovary
(d) oviduct

Answer

(d) oviduct


Question 29.
Which of the following is a primary sex organ in a mammal?
(a) Ovary
(b) Vagina
(c) Uterus
(d) Mammary glands

Answer

(a) Ovary


Question 30.
What marks the beginning of the reproductive life of a woman?
(a) Menopause
(b) Menarche
(c) Fertilisation
(d) Ovulation

Answer

(b) Menarche


Question 31.
Where does fertilisation take place?
(a) Uterus
(b) Vagina
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) Cervix

Answer

(c) Fallopian tube


Question 32.
Pollen grains are produced by
(a) ovary
(b) ovule
(c) anther
(d) corolla

Answer

(c) anther


Question 33.
Fertilization in plants occurs in the:
(a) Embryo sac
(b) Style
(c) Pollen tube
(d) Stigma

Answer

(a) Embryo sac


Question 34.
The embryo in humans gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called
(a) Placenta
(b) Villi
(c) Uterus
(d) Womb

Answer

(a) Placenta


Question 35.
Which of the following method of contraception protects from acquiring sexually transmitted diseases?
(a) Surgery
(b) Condoms
(c) Copper-T
(d) Oral-pills

Answer

(b) Condoms


Question 36.
The ability of an organism to develop whole body from a broken piece or fragment is called
(a) binary fission
(b) budding
(c) multiple fission
(d) regeneration

Answer

(d) regeneration


Question 37.
The normal duration of menstrual cycle is
(a) 7 – 8 days
(b) 13 – 15 days
(c) 3 – 4 days
(d) 28 days

Answer

(d) 28 days


Question 38.
Which of the following is not an artificial method of vegetative propagation?
(a) Cutting
(b) Layering
(c) Budding
(d) Grafting

Answer

(c) Budding


Question 39.
Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
(a) Syphyllis
(b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV-AIDS
(d) Gonorrhea

Answer

(b) Hepatitis


Question 40.
Along the path of the vas-deferens the secretions of which gland provide nutrition to the sperms?
(a) Prostate glands
(b) Seminal vesicles
(c) Scrotum
(d) Urinary bladder

Answer

(b) Seminal vesicles


Question 41.
Plants like banana, rose, jasmine, orange have lost the capacity to produce
(a) seeds
(b) buds
(c) flower
(d) roots

Answer

(a) seeds


Question 42.
During grafting, the portion of plant that is grafted is called –
(a) Stock
(b) Scion
(c) stalk
(d) stem

Answer

(b) Scion


Question 43.
The process of release of eggs from the ovary is called
(a) menstruation
(b) reproduction
(c) insemination
(d) ovulation

Answer

(d) ovulation


Question 44.
In Rhizopus, tubular thread like structures bearing sporangia at their tips are called
(a) filaments
(b) hyphae
(c) rhizoids
(d) roots

Answer

(b) hyphae


Question 45.
In a potato, vegetative propagation takes place by:
(a) root
(b) leaf
(c) stem tuber
(d) grafting

Answer

(c) stem tuber


Question 46.
When an organism breaks into a number of parts and each part develop into an individual, it is called:
(a) Budding
(b) Binary fission
(c) Regeneration
(d) Spore formation

Answer

(c) Regeneration


Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 10 Science How do Organisms Reproduce? MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

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Biology MCQs Questions for Class 10 with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST with Answers PDF Download Chapter Wise

Are you looking for the perfect way to study Class 9 Social Science? You came to the right page. Our team has figured out how best to learn Social Science, with Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST with Answers of History, Geography, Civics, Economics! We researched all of this year’s CBSE Class 9 Social Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers as well so that we can make sure you’re ready for anything on test day. Go ahead and find Class 9 Social Science Objective Questions.

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science SST with Answers PDF Download Chapter Wise

Are you looking for the perfect way to study Class 10 Social Science? You came to the right page. Our team has figured out how best to learn Social Science, with Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science SST with Answers of History, Geography, Civics, Economics! We researched all of this year’s CBSE Class 10 Social Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers as well so that we can make sure you’re ready for anything on test day. Go ahead and find Class 10 Social Science Objective Questions.

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  2. Forest and Wildlife Resources Class 10 MCQ
  3. Water Resources Class 10 MCQ
  4. Agriculture Class 10 MCQ
  5. Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ
  6. Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ
  7. Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 MCQ

MCQ Questions for Class 10 SST Civics with Answers

  1. Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ
  2. Federalism Class 10 MCQ
  3. Democracy and Diversity Class 10 MCQ
  4. Gender Religion and Caste Class 10 MCQ
  5. Popular Struggles and Movements Class 10 MCQ
  6. Political Parties Class 10 MCQ
  7. Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQ
  8. Challenges to Democracy Class 10 MCQ

MCQ Questions for Class 10 SST Economics with Answers

  1. Development Class 10 MCQ
  2. Sectors of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ
  3. Money and Credit Class 10 MCQ
  4. Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ
  5. Consumer Rights Class 10 MCQ

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 10 Science Physics, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in Class 10 Physics and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

Electricity Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Electricity Multiple Choice Questions of Class 10 Science Chapter 12 MCQ can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Electricity Class 10 with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Assertion: When a battery is short circuited, the terminal voltage is zero.
Reason: In short circuit, the current is zero.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(c) A is true but R is false.


Question 2.
Assertion: In an open circuit, the current passes from one terminal of the electric cell to another.
Reason: Generally, the metal disc of a cell acts as a positive terminal.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(d) A is false but R is true.


Question 3.
Electrical resistivity of any given metallic wire depends upon
(a) its thickness
(b) its shape
(c) nature of the material
(d) its length

Answer

(c) nature of the material


Question 4.
Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) resistance
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) voltage


Question 5.
100 J of heat is produced each second in a 4Ω resistor. The potential difference across the resistor will be:
(a) 30 V
(b) 10 V
(c) 20 V
(d) 25 V

Answer

(b) 10 V


Question 6.
The resistivity of insulators is of the order of
(a) 10-8 Ω-m
(b) 101 Ω-m
(c) 10-6 Ω-m
(d) 106 Ω-m

Answer

(a) 10-8 Ω-m


Question 7.
An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the bulb?
(a) 440 W
(b) 110 W
(c) 55 W
(d) 0.0023 W

Answer

(b) 110 W


Question 8.
The electrical resistance of insulators is
(a) high
(b) low
(c) zero
(d) infinitely high

Answer

(d) infinitely high


Question 9.
When electric current is passed, electrons move from:
(a) high potential to low potential.
(b) low potential to high potential.
(c) in the direction of the current.
(d) against the direction of the current.

Answer

(b) low potential to high potential.


Question 10.
The heating element of an electric iron is made up of:
(a) copper
(b) nichrome
(c) aluminium
(d) iron

Answer

(b) nichrome


Question 11.
Coulomb is the SI unit of:
(a) charge
(b) current
(c) potential difference
(d) resistance

Answer

(a) charge


Question 12.
Work done to move 1coulomb charge from one point to another point on a charged conductor having potential 10volt is
(a) 1 Joule
(b) 10 Joule
(c) zero
(d) 100 Joule

Answer

(c) zero


Question 13.
The effective resistance between A and B is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World-1
(a) 4Ω
(b) 6Ω
(c) May be 10 Ω
(d) Must be 10 Ω

Answer

(a) 4Ω


Question 14.
A student says that the resistance of two wires of same length and same area of cross section is same. This statement is correct if
(a) Both wires are of different materials
(b) Both wires are made of same material and are at different temperature.
(c) Both wires are made of same material and are at same temperature.
(d) Both wires are made of different materials and are at the same temperature.

Answer

(c) Both wires are made of same material and are at same temperature.


Question 15.
A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volt are to be used from a household supply. The rating of fuse to be used is
(a) 2.5 A
(b) 5.0 A
(c) 7.5 A
(d) 10 A

Answer

(d) 10 A


Question 16.
If the current I through a resistor is increased by 100% the increased in power dissipation will be (assume temperature remain unchanged)
(a)100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%

Answer

(c) 300%


Question 17.
A coil in the heater consume power P on passing current. If it is cut into halves and joined in parallel, it will consume power
(a) P
(b) P/2
(c) 2P
(d) 4P

Answer

(d) 4P


Question 18.
If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W respectively operating 220 V, then
(a) R1 < R2
(b) R2 < R1
(c) R1 = R2
(d) R1 ≥ R2

Answer

(b) R2 < R1


Question 19.
A metallic conductor has loosely bound electrons called free electrons. The metallic conductor is
(a) negatively charged
(b) positively charged
(c) neutral
(d) Either positively charged or negatively charged

Answer

(c) neutral


Question 20.
To get 2 Ω resistance using only 6 Ω resistors, the number of them required is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

Answer

(b) 3


Question 21.
Resistivity of a metallic wise depends on
(a) its length
(b) its shape
(c) its thickness
(d) nature of material

Answer

(d) nature of material


Question 22.
Assertion: Conductors allow the current to flow through themselves.
Reason: They have free charge carriers.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


Question 23.
Assertion: Bending of wire decrease the resistance of electric wire.
Reason: The resistance of a conductor depends on length, thickness, nature of material and temperature of the conductor.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


Question 24.
What is the commercial unit of electrical energy?
(a) Joules
(b) Kilojoules
(c) Kilowatt-hour
(d) Watt-hour

Answer

(c) Kilowatt-hour


Question 25.
A boy records that 4000 joule of work is required to transfer 10 coulomb of charge between two points of a resistor of 50 Ω. The current passing through it is
(a) 2 A
(b) 4 A
(c) 8 A
(d) 16 A

Answer

(c) 8 A


Question 26.
A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of
(a) more length
(b) less radius
(c) less length
(d) more radius

Answer

(d) more radius


Question 27.
Three resistors of 1 Ω, 2 ft and 3 Ω are connected in parallel. The combined resistance of the three resistors should be
(a) greater than 3 Ω
(b) less than 1 Ω
(c) equal to 2 Ω
(d) between 1 Ω and 3 Ω

Answer

(b) less than 1 Ω


Question 28.
Which of the following gases are filled in electric bulbs?
(a) Helium and Neon
(b) Neon and Argon
(c) Argon and Hydrogen
(d) Argon and Nitrogen

Answer

(d) Argon and Nitrogen


Question 29.
Electric power is inversely proportional to
(a) resistance
(b) voltage
(c) current
(d) temperature

Answer

(a) resistance


Question 30.
An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be:
(a) 100 W
(b) 75 W
(c) 50 W
(d) 25 W

Answer

(d) 25 W


Question 31.
1 mV is equal to:
(a) 10 volt
(b) 1000 volt
(c) 10-3 volt
(d) 10-6 volt

Answer

(c) 10-3 volt


Question 32.
A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R’, then the ratio R/R’ is:
(a) 1/25
(b) 1/5
(c) 5
(d) 25

Answer

(d) 25


Question 33.
Electric potential is a:
(a) scalar quantity
(b) vector quantity
(c) neither scalar nor vector
(d) sometimes scalar and sometimes vector

Answer

(a) scalar quantity


Question 34.
What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 W?
(a) 1/5 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 5 Ω
(d) 1 Ω

Answer

(d) 1 Ω


Question 35.
A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. Number of electrons passing through a cross-section of the filament in 16 seconds would be roughly
(a) 1020
(b) 1016
(c) 1018
(d) 1023

Answer

(a) 1020


Question 36.
The resistance of hot filament of the bulb is about 10 times the cold resistance. What will be the resistance of 100 W-220 V lamp, when not in use?
(a) 48 Ω
(b) 400 Ω
(c) 484 Ω
(d) 48.4 Ω

Answer

(c) 484 Ω


Question 37.
The nature of the graph between potential difference and the electric current flowing through a conductor is
(a)parabolic
(b) circle
(c) straight line
(d) hyperbolic

Answer

(c) straight line


Question 38.
Two resistors are connected in series gives an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in parallel, gives 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance are
(a) each of 5 Ω
(b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω
(c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω
(d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω

Answer

(b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω


Question 39.
Resistivity of a metallic wise depends on
(a) its length
(b) its shape
(c) its thickness
(d) nature of material

Answer

(d) nature of material


Question 40.
Calculate the current flows through the 10 Ω resistor in the following circuit.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World-2
(a) 1.2 A
(b) 0.6 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 2.0 A

Answer

(b) 0.6 A


Question 41.
The least resistance obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is
(a) < 100 Ω
(b) < 4 Ω
(c) < 1 Ω
(d) > 2 Ω

Answer

(c) < 1 Ω


Question 42.
A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in 10 seconds is
(a) 2 × 103 joule
(b) 2 × 105 joule
(c) 2 × 104 joule
(d) 2 × 102 joule

Answer

(b) 2 × 105 joule


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 10 Science Physics, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in Class 10 Physics and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Human Eye and Colourful World Multiple Choice Questions of Class 10 Science Chapter 11 MCQ can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
ssertion: Blind spot is a small area of the retina which is insensitive to light where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
Reason: There are no rods or cones present at the junction of optic nerve and retina in the eye.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


Question 2.
The defect of the eye in which the eyeball becomes too long is
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) cataract

Answer

(a) myopia


Question 3.
What type of image is formed by the eye lens on the retina?
(a) Real and erect
(b) Virtual and inverted
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Virtual and erect

Answer

(c) Real and inverted


Question 4.
The amount of light entering the eye can be controlled by the
(a) iris
(b) pupil
(c) cornea
(d) ciliary muscles

Answer

(b) pupil


Question 5.
At noon, the Sun appears white as
(a) blue colour is scattered the most
(b) red colour is scattered the most
(c) light is least scattered
(d) all the colours of the white light are scattered away

Answer

(c) light is least scattered


Question 6.
Twinkling of stars is due to
(a) reflection of light by clouds
(b) scattering of light by dust particles
(c) dispersion of light by water drops
(d) atmospheric refraction of starlight

Answer

(d) atmospheric refraction of starlight


Question 7.
The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) dispersion
(d) deviation

Answer

(c) dispersion


Question 8.
A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power
(a) + 0.5 D
(b) – 0.5 D
(c) + 0.2 D
(d) – 0.2 D

Answer

(b) – 0.5 D


Question 9.
The clear sky appears blue because
(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere.
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere.
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere.
(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere.

Answer

(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere.


Question 10.
One cannot see through the fog, because
(a) refractive index of the fog is very high
(b) light suffers total reflection at droplets
(c) fog absorbs light
(d) light is scattered by the droplets

Answer

(d) light is scattered by the droplets


Question 11.
Refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to variation in air density is called
(a) atmospheric reflection
(b) atmospheric dispersion
(c) atmospheric scattering
(d) atmospheric refraction

Answer

(d) atmospheric refraction


Question 12.
The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all direction is called …………………….. of light.
(a) dispersion
(b) scattering
(c) interference
(d) tyndell effect

Answer

(c) interference


Question 13.
The air layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less then the hot layer behave as optically
(a) denser medium
(b) rarer medium
(c) inactive medium
(d) either denser or rarer medium

Answer

(a) denser medium


Question 14.
The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles.
(a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
(b) contract and lens becomes thicker
(c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
(d) Contract and lens becomes thinner.

Answer

(a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner


Question 15.
The colour that is scattered the least by the tiny particles and the atoms/ molecules of the atmosphere is
(a) Violet
(b) Green
(c) yellow
(d) Red

Answer

(d) Red


Question 16.
The image formed on the retina of the human eye is
(a) virtual and inverted
(b) real and inverted
(c) real and erect
(d) virtual and erect

Answer

(b) real and inverted


Question 17.
When a person is myopic, he/ she can clearly see
(a) both nearby and far off objects
(b) Only nearby objects
(c) only far off objects
(d) Neither nearby nor far off objects

Answer

(b) Only nearby objects


Question 18.
The defect of vision in which the person is able to see distant object distinctly but cannot see nearby objects clearly is called
(a) Long-sightedness
(b) Far-sightedness
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above


Question 19.
The defect of myopia can be corrected by using
(a) Concave lens
(b) Convex lens
(c) Either concave or convex
(d) A complicated combination of lenses.

Answer

(a) Concave lens


Question 20.
Which of the following phenomenon contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal Reflection
(d) Reflection of light from the earth

Answer

(b) Scattering of light


Question 21.
Assertion: Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in torches, vehicle head-lights and in search lights.
Reason: When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed is real and inverted.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.


Question 22.
Assertion: The near-point of a hypermetropic eye is more than 25 cm away.
Reason: Hypermetropia is corrected using spectacles containing concave lenses.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(c) A is true but R is false.


Question 23.
Which of the following is a natural phenomenon which is caused by the dispersion of sunlight in the sky?
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Stars seem higher than they actually are
(c) Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset
(d) Rainbow

Answer

(d) Rainbow


Question 24.
The medical condition in which the lens of the eye of a person becomes progressively cloudy resulting in blurred vision is called
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) cataract

Answer

(d) cataract


Question 25.
The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is
(a) infinity
(b) 25 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 25 m

Answer

(b) 25 cm


Question 26.
The defect of vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects clearly but can see nearby objects clearly is called
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) bifocal eye

Answer

(a) myopia


Question 27.
A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power
(a) + 0.5 D
(b) – 0.5 D
(c) + 0.2 D
(d) – 0.2 D

Answer

(b) -0.5 D


Question 28.
Near and far points of a young person normal eye respectively are
(a) 0 and infinity
(b) 0 and 25 cm
(c) 25 cm and infinity
(d) 25 cm and 150 cm.

Answer

(c) 25 cm and infinity


Question 29.
Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
(a) dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds.

Answer

(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices


Question 30.
The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a distance because among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(b) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(c) moves fastest in air

Answer

(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog


Question 31.
When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to
(a) different refractive index for different wavelength of each colour
(b) each colours has same velocity in the prism.
(c) prism material have high density.
(d) Scattering of light

Answer

(a) different refractive index for different wavelength of each colour


Question 32.
The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the
(a) Pupil
(b) Retina
(c) Cilliary muscles
(d) Iris

Answer

(c) Cilliary muscles


Question 33.
The human eye forms the image of an object at its
(a) Cornea
(b) Iris
(c) Pupil
(d) Retina

Answer

(d) Retina


Question 34.
The least distance of distinct vision for an eye lens is caused by the action of the
(a) 25 m
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 25 cm
(d) 2.5 m

Answer

(c) 25 cm


Question 35.
The human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye lens. This is due to
(a) Presbyopia
(b) Accommodation
(c) Near-sightedness
(d) Far-sightedness

Answer

(b) Accommodation


Question 36.
Bi-focal lens are required to correct
(a) astigmatism
(b) coma
(c) myopia
(d) presbyopia

Answer

(d) presbyopia


Question 37.
The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image of the object at varying distances on the retina is called
(a) Power of observation of the eye
(b) Power of adjustment of the eye
(c) Power of accommodation of the eye
(d) Power of enabling of the eye

Answer

(c) Power of accommodation of the eye


Question 38.
Myopia and hypermetropia can be corrected by
(a) Concave and plano-convex lens
(b) Concave and convex lens
(c) Convex and concave lens
(d) Plano-concave lens for both defects.

Answer

(b) Concave and convex lens


Question 39.
The muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil is
(a) cornea
(b) ciliary muscles
(c) iris
(d) retina

Answer

(c) iris


Question 40.
The black opening between the aqueous humour and the lens is called
(a) retina
(b) iris
(c) cornea
(d) pupil

Answer

(d) pupil


Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 10 Science Human Eye and Colourful World MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

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Physics MCQs Questions for Class 10 with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 6 Maths, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes MCQs with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers is perfect for those who are in Class 6 Maths and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible! You can practice and test your subject knowledge by solving these Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes Objective Questions.

Understanding Elementary Shapes Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Class 6 Maths Understanding Elementary Shapes MCQ with Answers can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Understanding Elementary Shapes Class 6 with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
A quadrilateral having one pair of sides parallel is called:
(a) square
(b) trapezium
(c) rectangle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) trapezium


Question 2.
A triangular prism has:
(a) 9 faces
(b) 8 faces
(c) 7 faces
(d) 5 faces

Answer

Answer: (d) 5 faces


Question 3.
Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 2 and makes \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) of a revolution, clockwise?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 11
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 8


Question 4.
An angle whose measure is equal to half of a revolution is
(a) right angle
(b) acute angle
(c) straight angle
(d) obtuse angle

Answer

Answer: (c) straight angle


Question 5.
A quadrilateral whose opposite sides are parallel is called:
(a) square
(b) rectangle
(c) parallelogram
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) parallelogram


Question 6.
A quadrilateral whose all the sides are equal and each angle is 90° is called a:
(a) square
(b) rhombus
(c) rectangle
(d) trapezium

Answer

Answer: (a) square


Question 7.
Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 12 and makes \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) of a revolution, clockwise?
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 3
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 9


Question 8.
When the sum of the measures of two angles is that of a right angle, then each one of them is ______.
(a) obtuse angle
(b) acute angle
(c) straight angle
(d) right angle

Answer

Answer: (b) acute angle


Question 9.
How many degrees are there in two right angles?
(a) 90°
(b) 180°
(c) 270°
(d) 360°

Answer

Answer: (b) 180°


Question 10.
An angle formed by two opposite rays is called a:
(a) complete angle
(b) zero angle
(c) straight angle
(d) right angle

Answer

Answer: (c) straight angle


Question 11.
Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 3 and makes \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) of a revolution, clockwise?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 12


Question 12.
How many centimetres make 3m?
(a) 100
(b) 30
(c) 300
(d) 3000

Answer

Answer: (c) 300


Question 13.
When an arm of an angle is extended then how does its measure change?
(a) Doubled
(b) Tripled
(c) Remains the same
(d) Halved

Answer

Answer: (c) Remains the same


Question 14.
Triangle having the angles 40°, 30°, 110° is called:
(a) acute angled triangle
(b) obtuse angled triangle
(c) right triangle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) obtuse angled triangle


Question 15.
An angle which is greater than a right angle but less than a straight angle is called:
(a) an acute angle
(b) an obtuse angle
(c) a complete angle
(d) straight angle

Answer

Answer: (b) an obtuse angle


Question 16.
What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through, when it goes from 7 to 10?
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)


Question 17.
What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through, when it goes from 3 to 9?
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(b) 1
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)


Question 18.
What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through, when it goes from 1 to 10?
(a) \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\)
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
(c) More than \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\)


Question 19.
A triangle having the angles 45°, 75°, 60° is called:
(a) acute angled triangle
(b) obtuse angled triangle
(c) right triangle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) acute angled triangle


Question 20.
An angle which is greater than a zero angle but less than a right angle is called:
(a) an obtuse angle
(b) a complete angle
(c) an acute angle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) an acute angle


Question 21.
l and m are two lines perpendicular to each other. What is the measure of the angle between them?
(a) 10°
(b) 50°
(c) 40°
(d) 90°

Answer

Answer: (d) 90°


Question 22.
What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through, when it goes from 3 to 6?
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
(b) 1
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)


Question 23.
A triangle having sides 6 cm, 6 cm, 6 cm is called:
(a) scalene triangle
(b) equilateral triangle
(c) isosceles triang’e
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) equilateral triangle


Question 24.
A triangle whose all sides are equal is:
(a) a scalene triangle
(b) an equilateral triangle.
(c) an isosceles triangle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) an equilateral triangle.


Question 25.
An angle whose measure is equal to a full revolution is
(a) complete angle
(b) right angle
(c) obtuse angle
(d) straight angle

Answer

Answer: (a) complete angle


Question 26.
An angle whose measure is greater than that of a right angle is ______.
(a) right angle
(b) straight angle
(c) acute angle
(d) obtuse angle

Answer

Answer: (d) obtuse angle


Question 27.
A triangle having sides 4.5 cm, 5.5 cm, 6.5 cm is called:
(a) scalene triangle
(b) equilateral triangle
(c) isosceles triangle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) scalene triangle


Question 28.
If the initial and final positions of a ray coincide without making any rotation the angle formed is:
(a) zero angle
(b) an acute angle
(c) an obtuse angle
(c) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) zero angle


Question 29.
What is an angle which measures more than 0° and less than 90° called?
(a) Obtuse angle
(b) Acute angle
(c) Right angle
(d) Straight angle

Answer

Answer: (b) Acute angle


Question 30.
Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 6 and makes \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) of a revolution, clockwise?
(a) 3
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (a) 3


Question 31.
A triangle having angles 30°, 60°, 90° is called:
(a) acute angled triangle
(b) obtuse angled triangle
(c) right triangle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) right triangle


Question 32.
It two lines are perpendicular to each other then the angles between them is:
(a) 90°
(b) 45°
(c) 180°
(d) 0°

Answer

Answer: (a) 90°


Question 33.
How is the measure of an angle expressed?
(a) Compasses
(b) Protractor
(c) Degrees
(d) Centimetres

Answer

Answer: (c) Degrees


Question 34.
When the sum of the measures of two angles is that of a straight angle and if one of them is acute then the other should be _______.
(a) obtuse
(b) straight
(c) right
(d) acute

Answer

Answer: (a) obtuse


Question 35.
A quadrilateral whose all sides are equal is called:
(a) a square
(b) a rhombus
(c) rectangle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) a rhombus


Question 36.
A triangle whose each angle is less than 90° is:
(а) an obtuse triangle
(b) an acute triangle
(c) an equilateral triangle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) an acute triangle


Question 37.
What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through, when it goes from 5 to 11?
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(b) More than \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
(c) \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)


Question 38.
An angle whose measure is equal to one-fourth of a revolution is
(a) right angle
(b) straight angle
(c) obtuse angle
(d) acute angle

Answer

Answer: (a) right angle


Question 39.
A quadrilateral having equal opposite sides and each angle of 90° is called:
(a) square
(b) rectangle
(c) rhombus
(d) parallelogram

Answer

Answer: (b) rectangle


Question 40.
A triangle whose two sides are equal is:
(a) a scalene triangle
(b) an isosceles triangle
(c) an equilateral triangle
(d) a right triangle

Answer

Answer: (b) an isosceles triangle


Question 41.
At 5:20 what type of angle is formed between the two hands of a clock?
(a) An obtuse angle
(b) A right angle
(c) An acute angle
(d) A reflex angle

Answer

Answer: (c) An acute angle


Question 42.
179° is an example of which of these angles?
(a) An obtuse angle
(b) An acute angle
(c) A right angle
(d) A straight angle

Answer

Answer: (a) An obtuse angle


Fill in the blanks:

1. A quadrilateral can be divided into ………………….. triangles.

Answer

Answer: two


2. A pentagon can be divided into …………………. triangles

Answer

Answer: three


3. A three sided polygon is a …………………..

Answer

Answer: triangle


4. 4 sided polygon is a …………………..

Answer

Answer: quadrilateral


5. In an equilateral triangle all the angles are ………………….

Answer

Answer: 60°


6. How many degrees are there in a complete angle? ………………

Answer

Answer: 360°


7. Which instrument is used for measuring angles?

Answer

Answer: protractor


8. Measure of a straight angle is ……………………

Answer

Answer: 180°


9. Measure of a right angle is ………………

Answer

Answer: 90°


10. Measure of zero angle is …………………

Answer

Answer: 0°


Match the following:

1.

(a) An ice-cream cone (i) sphere
(b) A book (ii) cylinder
(c) A football (iii) cone
(d) A dice (iv) cuboid
(e) A new pencil (v) cube
Answer

Answer:

(a) An ice-cream cone (iii) cone
(b) A book (iv) cuboid
(c) A football (i) sphere
(d) A dice (v) cube
(e) A new pencil (ii) cylinder

Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes with Answers useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 6 Maths Understanding Elementary Shapes MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 4 Basic Geometrical Ideas with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 6 Maths, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 4 Basic Geometrical Ideas with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers is perfect for those who are in Class 6 Maths and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible! You can practice and test your subject knowledge by solving these Class 6 Maths Chapter 4 Basic Geometrical Ideas Objective Questions.

Basic Geometrical Ideas Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Class 6 Maths Basic Geometrical Ideas MCQ with Answers can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Basic Geometrical Ideas Class 6 with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
A triangle has:
(a) one element
(b) two elements
(c) 6 elements
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 6 elements


Question 2.
A point where three or more lines meet is called:
(a) point of concurrence
(b) meeting point
(c) collinear point
(d) non-collinear point

Answer

Answer: (a) point of concurrence


Question 3.
What are used to represent points?
(a) Numerals.
(b) Capital letters of alphabet.
(c) Lower case letters of alphabet.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Capital letters of alphabet.


Question 4.
Which instrument is used to compare two line segments?
(a) Compasses
(b) A divider
(c) Set squares
(d) A protractor

Answer

Answer: (b) A divider


Question 5.
A __________ of a circle is a line segment joining any two points on the circle.
(a) chord
(b) diameter
(c) radius
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) chord


Question 6.
A quadrilateral has:
(a) one vertex
(b) two vertices
(c) three vertices
(d) four vertices

Answer

Answer: (d) four vertices


Question 7.
The meeting point of a pair of adjacent sides of a polygon is called its:
(a) vertex
(b) diagonal
(c) adjacent angles
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) vertex


Question 8.
An angle is made up of two ________ starting from common end point.
(a) rays
(b) vertices
(c) lines
(d) points

Answer

Answer: (a) rays


Question 9.
If two lines intersects each other then the common point between them is known as point of _________.
(a) concurrence
(b) intersection
(c) vertex
(d) contact

Answer

Answer: (b) intersection


Question 10.
What is a set of points extending infinitely in all directions on the same flat surface called?
(a) A line
(b) A plane
(c) Ray
(d) A point

Answer

Answer: (b) A plane


Question 11.
A quadrilateral has:
(a) one diagonal
(b) two diagonals
(c) three diagonals
(d) four diagonals

Answer

Answer: (b) two diagonals


Question 12.
Three or more points are collinear if they lie on the:
(a) same line
(b) two lines
(c) same surface
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) same line


Question 13.
Flat surface in which two points are joined by using straight line is classified as
(a) line
(b) plane
(c) ray
(d) intersecting line

Answer

Answer: (b) plane


Question 14.
What is the number of end points of a line?
(a) Zero
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three

Answer

Answer: (a) Zero


Question 15.
Angle which is less than 90° is called
(a) reflex angle
(b) obtuse angle
(c) acute angle
(d) right angle

Answer

Answer: (c) acute angle


Question 16.
The maximum number of points of intersection of three lines is:
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four

Answer

Answer: (c) three


Question 17.
A polygon having four sides is called:
(a) triangle
(b) quadrilateral
(c) circle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) quadrilateral


Question 18.
The centre of a circle:
(a) lies in its interior
(b) lies in its exterior
(c) lies on the circle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) lies in its interior


Question 19.
Any line segment can be formed by joining
(a) two points
(b) three points
(c) four points
(d) more than three points

Answer

Answer: (a) two points


Question 20.
Angle which is equal to 90° is classified as
(a) right angle
(b) obtuse angle
(c) acute angle
(d) reflex angle

Answer

Answer: (a) right angle


Question 21.
A triangle has:
(a) one vertex
(b) two vertices
(c) three vertices
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) three vertices


Question 22.
A ray has:
(a) one end point
(b) two end points
(c) three end points
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) one end point


Question 23.
Out of following, one angle which is obtuse is
(a) \(\frac { 11 }{ 21 }\) of a right angle
(b) \(\frac { 8 }{ 20 }\) of a complete rotation
(c) \(\frac { 11 }{ 21 }\) of a complete rotation
(d) \(\frac { 8 }{ 20 }\) of a right angle

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac { 8 }{ 20 }\) of a complete rotation


Question 24.
Two lines meeting at a point are called ___________ .
(a) intersecting lines
(b) concurrent lines
(c) parallel line
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) intersecting lines


Question 25.
A triangle has:
(a) one median
(b) two medians
(c) three medians
(d) four medians

Answer

Answer: (c) three medians


Question 26.
A quadrilateral is a polygon having:
(a) two sides
(b) three sides
(c) four sides
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) four sides


Question 27.
Two distinct lines meeting at a points are called _____________.
(a) intersecting lines
(b) parallel lines
(c) collinear lines
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) intersecting lines


Question 28.
Out of following options, two angles that are together classified as complementary angles are
(a) 120° and 60°
(b) 50° and 30°
(c) 65° and 25°
(d) 70° and 30°

Answer

Answer: (c) 65° and 25°


Question 29.
A triangle has:
(a) one side
(b) two sides
(c) three sides
(d) four sides

Answer

Answer: (c) three sides


Question 30.
A circle is a:
(a) polygon
(b) an open curve
(c) a closed curve
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) a closed curve


Question 31.
If two angles are said to be supplementary angles and one of angle is of 122° then other angle is of
(a) 35°
(b) 32°
(c) 60°
(d) 58°

Answer

Answer: (d) 58°


Question 32.
How many lines pass through two given points?
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) many

Answer

Answer: (a) one


Question 33.
The minimum number of points of intersection of three lines is:
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) three

Answer

Answer: (a) zero


Question 34.
A line has:
(a) fixed length
(b) infinite length
(c) 100 cm length
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) infinite length


Question 35.
Two non-parallel lines always intersect:
(a) in a line
(b) in a point
(c) in two lines
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) in a point


Question 36.
Angle which is less than 360° and larger than 180° is classified as
(a) acute angle
(b) obtuse angle
(c) reflex angle
(d) right angle

Answer

Answer: (c) reflex angle


Question 37.
Three or more points lying on the same line are known as ___________ points.
(a) collinear
(b) intersecting
(c) non-collinear
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) collinear


Question 38.
Through one given point:
(a) one line can be drawn
(b) two lines can be drawn
(c) many lines can be drawn
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) many lines can be drawn


Question 39.
A point has:
(a) infinite length
(b) 1 mm length
(c) no length
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (c) no length


Question 40.
How many lines pass through one given point?
(a) Three
(b) One
(c) Countless
(d) Two

Answer

Answer: (c) Countless


Question 41.
What is a set of points which extend infinitely in both directions called?
(a) A line
(b) A plane
(c) A line segment
(d) A point

Answer

Answer: (a) A line


Question 42.
A quadrilateral has:
(a) one side
(b) two sides
(c) three sides
(d) four sides

Answer

Answer: (d) four sides


Question 43.
An angle has:
(a) one vertex and one arm
(b) one vertex and two. arms
(c) two vertices and two arms
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) one vertex and two. arms


Question 44.
A flat surface which extends indefinitely in all directions is called ___________ .
(a) plane
(b) lines
(c) point
(d) line segment

Answer

Answer: (a) plane


Fill in the blanks:

1. A triangle has …………… medians.

Answer

Answer: three


2. Radius is ………………… of the diameter.

Answer

Answer: half


3. A quadrilateral has …………………. diagonals.

Answer

Answer: two


4. All the radii of a circle are ………………..

Answer

Answer: equal


5. How many chords of a circle are there? ……………………….

Answer

Answer: infinite


6. A point equidistant from all the points on a circle is called ……………….. of the circle.

Answer

Answer: center


7. The diameter of a circle is the …………………. chord of the circle.

Answer

Answer: longest


8. Name all the sides of a polygon ABCD ………………..

Answer

Answer: AB, BC, CD, DA


9. A quadrilateral has …………………. vertices.

Answer

Answer: four


10. How many centres does a circle have? …………………

Answer

Answer: one


11. A triangle has ………….. vertices.

Answer

Answer: three


12. The distance between any two points on the circle is called ………………….. of the circle.

Answer

Answer: chord


13. A triangle has ……………… sides.

Answer

Answer: three


14. A quadrilateral has ……………… sides.

Answer

Answer: four


Match the following:

1.

(a) A triangle (i) Line segment joining two points on the circle
(b) A quadrilateral (ii) Has one center
(c) A chord of a circle (iii) Has three sides
(d) Diameter of a circle (iv) Has four sides
(e) A circle (v) Longest chord
Answer

Answer:

(a) A triangle (iii) Has three sides
(b) A quadrilateral (iv) Has four sides
(c) A chord of a circle (i) Line segment joining two points on the circle
(d) Diameter of a circle (v) Longest chord
(e) A circle (ii) Has one center

Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 4 Basic Geometrical Ideas with Answers useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 6 Maths Basic Geometrical Ideas MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

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