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MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

October 21, 2021September 22, 2021 by Pooja

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 10 History, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 10 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible! You can practice and test your subject knowledge by solving this MCQ of Chapter 3 History Objective Questions.

Nationalism in India Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Class 10 History Chapter 3 MCQ with Answers, can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ on Nationalism in India Class 10 with Answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
An important feature of the Civil Disobedience Movement was the:
(a) Large-scale participation of villagers.
(b) Large-scale participation of the people.
(c) Participation of the Indian merchants and industrialists.
(d) Large-scale participation of women.

Answer

Answer: (d) Large-scale participation of women.
A large-scale women participated in this movement.

Question 2.
Mahatma Gandhi declared that Swaraj would not come for a hundred years if:
(a) Sati system was not abolished
(b) Women did not participate in the movement
(c) Untouchability was not eliminated
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Untouchability was not eliminated
If untouchability was not eliminated.

Question 3.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who organised the Dalits into the Depressed Classes Association:
(а) Clashed with Lord Irwin at the Second Round Table Confereru
(b Clashed with Jawaharlal Nehru at the First Round Table Conference
(c) Clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the Second Round Table Conference
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the Second Round Table Conference
Dr. Ambedkar clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the Second Round Table Conference.

Question 4.
Mahatma Gandhi called the ‘untouchables’:
(a) Messengers of God
(b) Local people
(c) Harijan
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Harijan
Mahatma Gandhi called the untouchables as Harijans.

Question 5.
Muhammad AliJinnah was willing to give up the demand for separate electorates:
(a) If Muslims were included in the Second Round Table Conference.
(b) If Muslims were assured reserved seats in the Central Assembly.
(c) If Muslims were assured reserved seats in the Central Assembly and representation in proportion to population in the Muslim-dominated provinces.
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Muslims were assured reserved seats in the Central Assembly and representation in proportion to population in the Muslim-dominated provinces.
Jinnah give up the demand for separate electorates if Muslims were assured reserved in the Central Assembly.

Question 6.
The image of Bharat Mata was first created by:
(a) Abanindranath Tagore
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer

Answer: (c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
It was created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Question 7.
‘Vazide Matram’ a hymn to the motherland was written by:
(а) Abanindranath Tagore
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Answer

Answer: (d) Bankim Chandra
Chattopadhyay
It was written by Bankim Cha dra Chattopadhyay.

Question 8.
The sense of collective belongings came partly through the experience of:
(а) Different struggles
(b) Fixed struggle
(c) United struggles
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) United struggles
It came through united struggles.

Question 9.
In late nineteenth-century India, nationalists began recording folk tales sung by poets and they turned to villages to gather:
(a) Folk songs and legends
(b) Pictures and legends
(c) Folk songs
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Folk songs and legends
It was about folk songs and legends.

Question 10.
In Madras, a massive four volume collection of Tamil folk tales was published by:
(a) Natesa Sastri
(b) Natesa Verma
(c) Natesa Sharma
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Natesa Sastri
It was Natesa Sastri.

Question 11.
A tricolour flag, designed in Bengal had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of British India, and a crescent moon
(a) Representing rich and poor
(b) Merchants and peasants
(c) India and British
(d) Hindus and Muslims

Answer

Answer: (d) Hindus and Muslims
The crescent moon representing Hindus and Muslims.

Question 12.
In 1921, the Swaraj flag was designed by:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Motilal Nehru
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer

Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi
It was designed by Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 13.
Indians began looking into the past to discover:
(а) The history of Indian rulers
(b) The vedas
(c) India’s past geography
(d) India’s great achievements.

Answer

Answer: (d) India’s great achievements.
They were looking for India’s great achievements.

Question 14.
According to the census of 1921:
(a) 10 to 11 million people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic.
(b) 11 to 12 million people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic.
(c) 12 to 13 million people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic.
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) 12 to 13 million people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic.
According to the census of 1921 about 12 to 13 million people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic.

Question 15.
In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised a satyagraha to support the peasants of:
(а) Champaran in Bihar
(b) Kheda district of Gujarat
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) Kheda district of Gujarat
It was for peasants of Kheda district of Gujarat.

Question 16.
The Khilafat Movement was started:
(a) To protest against the Jallianwala Bagh incident
(b) To gain Puma Swaraj
(c) To protest against the Rowlatt Act
(d) To protest against the harsh treaty imposed on Turkey.

Answer

Answer: (d) To protest against the harsh treaty imposed on Turkey.
To protest against the harsh treaty imposed on Turkey.

Question 17.
A famous book of Mahatma Gandhi was:
(a) Anandamath
(b) The Folklore of Southern India
(c) Discovery of India
(d) Hind Swaraj

Answer

Answer: (d) Hind Swaraj
Hind Swaraj

Question 18.
For plantation workers in Assam:
(a) Freedom meant a part of the share.
(b) Freedom meant being paid.
(c) Freedom meant the right to move freely and do whatever they wanted.
(d) Freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confirmed place in which they were enclosed.

Answer

Answer: (d) Freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confirmed place in which they were enclosed.
For plantation workers in Assam freedom meant the right to move freely. They were not allowed to go out of the area by the Britishers.

Question 19.
At Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration in a bazaar turned into a:
(a) Violent clash with the Britishers
(b) Violent clash among themselves
(c) Violent clash with the police
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) Violent clash with the police.
It turned out into a violent clash between the police and the people.

Question 20.
Agricultural prices began to fall from 1926 and:
(a) Collapsed after 1927
(b) Collapsed after 1928
(c) Collapsed after 1929
(d) Collapsed after 1930

Answer

Answer: (d) Collapsed after 1930
The prices collapsed after 1930.

Question 21.
Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could:
(а) Separate the nation
(b) Separate the rich and the poor
(c) Separate the Hindus and Muslims
(d) Unite the nation.

Answer

Answer: (d) Unite the nation.
Mahatma Gandhi that breaked theSalt Law would unite the nation.

Question 22.
Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a devout disciple of Mahatma Gandhi, was arrested in:
(a) March 1930
(b) April 1930
(c) May 1930
(d) June 1930

Answer

Answer: (b) April 1930
He was arrested on April, 1930.

Question 23.
In 1928, the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army was founded at a meeting in:
(a) Eden Garden in Kolkatta
(b) Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai
(c) Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi.
It was formed in Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi.

Question 24.
During the First World War, Indian merchants and industrialists had made:
(a) less profit and became weak
(b) profit for the Britishers
(c) loss for the Britishers
(d) huge profits and became powerful

Answer

Answer: (d) huge profits and became powerful.
They had made huge profits and became powerful because during the war this item were in great demand.

Question 25.
At the Lahore Session, Congress adopted the demand for:
(а) Swaraj
(b) Purna Swaraj
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Purna Swaraj
The Congress domended Purna Swaraj.

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. Mahatma Gandhiji wanted a non-violent civil disobedience against unjust laws, which started with a hartal on 8 April.

Answer

Answer: False

2. On 10 April, the police fired upon a peaceful procession in Lucknow.

Answer

Answer: False

3. The infamous Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place on 13 April.

Answer

Answer: True

4. The First World War ended with the defeat of Ottoman Turkey.

Answer

Answer: True

5. The Non-cooperation programme was adopted finally at the Congress session at Nagpur in January 1920.

Answer

Answer: False

6. The Non-cooperation Khilafat Movement began in January 1921

Answer

Answer: True

7. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from 102 crore to Rs. 57 crore.

Answer

Answer: True

8. Khadi cloth was less expensive than mass-produced mill cloth.

Answer

Answer: False

9. In Awadh, peasants were led by Baba Ramchandra-a sanyasi who had earlier been to Fiji as an indentured labourer.

Answer

Answer: True

10. In most countries the making of the new national identity was a short process.

Answer

Answer: False

11. The Congress under Mahatma Gandhi tried to forge all groups together within one movement

Answer

Answer: True

12. According to the census of 1921, 14 to 15 million people perished as a result of famines and epidemic.

Answer

Answer: False

13. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January 1915.

Answer

Answer: True

14. In South Africa, Mahatma Gandhi successfully fought the racist regime with a novel method of mass agitation, which he called ahimsa.

Answer

Answer: False

15. In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive indigo system.

Answer

Answer: False

16. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi went to Allahabad to organise Satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill workers.

Answer

Answer: True

17. In 1920, Gandhiji decided to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act.

Answer

Answer: False

18. Satyagraha is not physical force but pure soul force.

Answer

Answer: True

19. In 1918, Gandhiji went to Ahmedabad to organise a Satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill workers.

Answer

Answer: True

20. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj Party within the Congress to argue for a return to council politics.

Answer

Answer: True

21. The Simon Commission arrived in India in 1927 and was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’.

Answer

Answer: False

22. In December 1929, the Lahore Congress formalised the demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ in India.

Answer

Answer: True

23. It was declared that 26 January 1940, would be celebrated as the Independence Day.

Answer

Answer: False

24. Abdul Ghaffar Khan was a devout disciple of Mahatma Gandhi.

Answer

Answer: True

25. By 1934, the Civil Disobedience Movement lost its momentum.

Answer

Answer: True

26. The industrial working classes did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement in large numbers, except in the Surat region.

Answer

Answer: False

27. An important feature of the Civil Disobedience Movement was the large- scale participation of women.

Answer

Answer: True

28. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar organised the Dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930.

Answer

Answer: True

29. Another means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through reinterpretation of history.

Answer

Answer: True

30. Peasants had to do begar and work at landlord’s farms without any payment.

Answer

Answer: True

31. In June 1920, Jawaharlal Nehru began going around the villages in Surat, talking to the villagers, and trying to understand their grievances.

Answer

Answer: False

32. By October, the Oudh Kisan Sabha was set up headed by Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.

Answer

Answer: True

33. On 6 January, 1921, the police in United Provinces fired at peasants near Rae Bareli.

Answer

Answer: True

34. Tribal peasants never interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi.

Answer

Answer: False

35. In Andhra Pradesh, the villagers considered Alluri Sitaram Raju as an incarnation of God.

Answer

Answer: True

36. Raju was captured by the Britishers and executed in 1925.

Answer

Answer: False

37. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission.

Answer

Answer: False

38. When the tribals chanted Gandhiji’s name and raised slogans demanding ‘Swatantra Bharat’ they were also emotionally relating to an all-India agitation.

Answer

Answer: True

39. At Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration in a bazaar turned into a violent clash with the police.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the following

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Mahatma Gandhi returned to India	1. 1922
(b) Mahatma Gandhi travelled to Champaran	2. 1930
(c) Mahatma Gandhi visited Ahmedabad in	3. 1934
(d) A Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in	4. 1931
(e) The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in	5. 1932
(f) The incident in Chauri Chaura occurred in	6. 1921
(g) Abdul Ghaffar Khan was arrested in	7. 1919
(h) The Civil Disobedience Movement lost in momentum in	8. 1918
(i) The Second Round Table Conference took place in	9. 1916
(j) The Civil Disobedience was re-launched in	10. 1915

Answer

Answer:

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Mahatma Gandhi returned to India	10. 1915
(b) Mahatma Gandhi travelled to Champaran	9. 1916
(c) Mahatma Gandhi visited Ahmedabad in	8. 1918
(d) A Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in	7. 1919
(e) The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in	6. 1921
(f) The incident in Chauri Chaura occurred in	1. 1922
(g) Abdul Ghaffar Khan was arrested in	2. 1930
(h) The Civil Disobedience Movement lost in momentum in	4. 1931
(i) The Second Round Table Conference took place in	5. 1932
(j) The Civil Disobedience was re-launched in	3. 1934

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Forced recruitment	1. A hymn to the motherland
(b) Boycott	2. A form of demonstration
(c) Picket	3. Labour without any payment
(d) Begar	4. A form of protest forbidding people to participate and buy things
(e) ‘Vande Matram’	5. Forcing people to join the army

Answer

Answer:

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Forced recruitment	5. Forcing people to join the army
(b) Boycott	4. A form of protest forbidding people to participate and buy things
(c) Picket	2. A form of demonstration
(d) Begar	3. Labour without any payment
(e) ‘Vande Matram’	1. A hymn to the motherland

Column-A	Column-B
A. Jallianwalla Bagh incident	1. 1931
B. Withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement	2. 1932
C. Arrival of Simon Commission	3. 1922
D. Gandhi-Irwin Pact	4. 1919
E. Poona Pact	5. 1928

Answer

Answer:

Column-A	Column-B
A. Jallianwalla Bagh incident	4. 1919
B. Withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement	3. 1922
C. Arrival of Simon Commission	5. 1928
D. Gandhi-Irwin Pact	1. 1931
E. Poona Pact	2. 1932

Column-I	Column-II	Column-III
1. Distressed Up peasants	(a) Non-cooperation movement	(A) 1918-19
2. Gandhian hartal	(b) arrested in	(B) 1919
3. Non-cooperation and	(c) demand for ‘Purna Swaraj’	(C) 1921
4. Gandhiji withdraws	(d) Depressed Classes Association	(D) 1922
5. Alluri Sitaram Raju	(e) Civil Disobedience Movement	(E) 1924
6. Congress adopts the	(f) Khilafat movement launched	(F) 1929
7. Ambedkar established	(g) against Rowlatt Act	(G) 1930
8. Gandhiji breaks	(h) organised by Baba Ramchandra	(H) 1930
9. Gandhiji ends	(i) re-launched	(I) 1932
10. Civil Disobedience	(j) salt law at Dandi	(J) 1931

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II	Column-III
1. Distressed Up peasants	(h) organised by Baba Ramchandra	(A) 1918-19
2. Gandhian hartal	(g) against Rowlatt Act	(B) 1919
3. Non-cooperation and	(f) Khilafat movement launched	(C) 1921
4. Gandhiji withdraws	(a) Non-cooperation movement	(D) 1922
5. Alluri Sitaram Raju	(b) arrested in	(E) 1924
6. Congress adopts the	(c) demand for ‘Purna Swaraj’	(F) 1929
7. Ambedkar established	(d) Depressed Classes Association	(G) 1930
8. Gandhiji breaks	(j) salt law at Dandi	(H) 1930
9. Gandhiji ends	(e) Civil Disobedience Movement	(J) 1931
10. Civil Disobedience	(i) re-launched	(I) 1932

Fill in the blanks

1. The name of the ……………………… was being invoked to sanction all action and aspiration,

Answer

Answer: Mahatma

2. On January 6, 1921, the police in United Provinces fired at peasants near ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Rai Bareli

3. The ……………………… rebels attacked police stations, attempted to kill British officials and carried on guerilla warfare for achieving swaraj.

Answer

Answer: Gudem

4. ………………………, announced in October 1929, a vague offer of‘dominion status’ for India in an unspecified future.

Answer

Answer: Lord Irwin

5. The ……………………… within the Congress led by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose, became more assertive.

Answer

Answer: Radicals

6. Mahatma Gandhi found in ……………………… a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.

Answer

Answer: Salt

7. The ……………………… peasants became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Answer

Answer: Rich

8. Many nationalists thought that the struggle against the British could not be won through ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Non-violence

9. ……………………… is the inalienable right of mankind.

Answer

Answer: Revolution

10. ……………………… is the imprescriptible birth right of all.

Answer

Answer: Freedom

11. The ……………………… is the real sustainer of society.

Answer

Answer: Labourer

12. Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide ……………………… against the Rowlatt Act.

Answer

Answer: Satyagraha

13. On 10 April, the police in ……………………… fired upon a peaceful procession.

Answer

Answer: Amritsar

14. Though the Rowlatt Satyagraha had been a widespread movement, it was still limited mostly to ……………………… and ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Cities towns

15. A ……………………… Committee was found in Bombay in March 1919.

Answer

Answer: Khilafat

16. In 1920, Gandhiji and ……………………… toured extensively, mobilising popular support for the movement.

Answer

Answer: Shaukat Ali

17. At the Congress session at ……………………… in December 1920, a compromise was worked out and the Non-cooperation programme was launched.

Answer

Answer: Nagpur

18. ……………………… cloth was seen as the symbol of western economic and cultural domination.

Answer

Answer: Foreign

19. ……………………… cloth was more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth.

Answer

Answer: Khadi

20. In ………………………, peasants were led by Baba Ramchandra-a sanyasi who had earlier been to Fiji as an indentured labour.

Answer

Answer: Awadh

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Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 2

October 17, 2021September 22, 2021 by Pooja

Find the best NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English with Answers online. Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 2 pdf free download is available that can be used as a study guide by prepaying and downloading it from our website, which will include answers along with detailed explanations of each question’s answer options so you are guaranteed maximum marks in your next exam!

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 2 Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom with Answers

Enhance your subject knowledge through Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom MCQ Online Test and lay a stronger foundation of your basics. Verify your answers with MCQ on For Anne Gregory provided and know where you went wrong. Use the Objective Questions of Class 10th Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom MCQ with Answers provided below and understand all the concepts easily. This chapter is an autobiography of Nelson Mandela. Nelson Mandela is the former South African President. The chapter describes his journey towards becoming a freedom fighter.

Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the most appropriate alternative from those given below:

(1)

But then I slowly saw that not only I was not free, but my brothers and sisters were not were. I saw that it was not just my freedom that was curtailed, but the freedom of everyone who looked like I did. That is when I joined the African National Congress and that is when the hunger for my own freedom became the greater hunger for the freedom of my people. It was this desire for the freedom of my people to live their lives with dignity and self-respect that animated my life, that transformed a frightened young man into a bold one, that drove a law-abiding attorney to become a criminal, that turned a family-loving husband into a man without a home, that forced a life-loving man to live like a monk.

Question 1.
‘1’ here refers to:
(a) Mbeki
(b) Zenani
(c) Kierk
(d) Nelson Mandela

Answer

(d) Nelson Mandela

Question 2.
The freedom of the author, who was a black, was:
(a) curtailed
(b) sanctioned
(c) opposed
(d) supported

Answer

(a) curtailed

Question 3.
The author felt the greater hunger for:
(a) the freedom of his parents
(b) the freedom of his people
(c) the freedom of his friends
(d) the freedom of neighbours

Answer

(b) the freedom of his people

Question 4.
The word ‘curtailed’ means:
(a) increased
(b) opposed
(c) reduced
(d) enlarged

Answer

Question 5.
The desire for freedom of the people transformed :
(a) an animal into a man
(b) a frightened leader into a minister
(c) a frightened young man into a bold one
(d) a man into a woman

Answer

(2)

It is from these comrades in the struggle that I learned the meaning of courage. Time and again. I have seen men and women risk and give their lives for an idea. 1 have seen men stand up to attacks and torture without breaking, showing a strength and resilience that defies the imagination. I learned that courage was not the absense of fear, but the triumph over it. The brave man is not he who does not feel afraid, but he who conquers that fear.

Question 1.
The comrades of the author made him aware about:
(a) the meaning of starvation
(b) the meaning of respect
(c) the meaning of love
(d) the meaning of courage

Answer

(d) the meaning of courage

Question 2.
To author, the men and women risk and sacrifice their lives for:
(a) the sake of family
(b) the sake of an idea
(c) the sake of friends
(d) the sake of money

Answer

(b) the sake of an idea

Question 3.
The author defines courage not the absence of fear:
(a) but rather afraid of it
(b) but rather the triumph over it
(c) but presence of shivering
(d) but rather reject it

Answer

(b) but rather the triumph over it

Question 4.
The word ‘resilience’ means:
(a) the ability to deal with any kind of hardship
(b) the ability to conquer the foe
(d) the ability to dive deep
(d) The ability to keep mum

Answer

(a) the ability to deal with any kind of hardship

Question 5.
The man who shows strength of standing up against a crime is called:
(a) brave man
(b) innocent man
(c) sensitive man
(d) coward

Answer

(a) brave man

(3)

Tenth May dawned bright and clear. For the past few days, I had been pleasantly besieged by dignitaries and world leaders who were coming to pay their respects before the inauguration. The inauguration would be the largest gathering ever of international leaders on South African soil, The ceremonies took place in the lovely sandstone amphitheater formed by the Union Buildings ¡n Pretoria. For decades this had been the seat of white supremacy, and now it was the site of rainbow gathering of different colours and nations for the installation of South Africa’s first democratic non-racial government.

Question 1.
‘I’ here refers to:
(a) Mbeki
(b) Kierk
(c) Zenani
(d) Nelson Mandela

Answer

(d) Nelson Mandela

Question 2.
He was surrounded by:
(a) international leaders and dignitaries
(b) family members
(c) national heroes
(d) British soldiers

Answer

(a) international leaders and dignitaries

Question 3.
The inauguration was to celebrate the installation of:
(a) South Africa’s first capitalist govt.
(b) South Africa’s first democratic govt.
(c) South Africa’s first communist govt
(d) none of the above

Answer

(b) South Africa’s first democratic govt.

Question 4.
The inaugurational ceremonies took place in the:
(a) lovely arena
(b) open wooden theatre
(c) lovely sandstone amphitheatre
(d) President House

Answer

Question 5.
The word ‘amphitheatre’ here means: :
(a) a building with a conical tent
(b) a building with ¡ron-fencipg
(c) a building with triangular shape
(d) a building without a roof

Answer

(d) a building without a roof

(4)

I knew that the oppressor must be liberated just as surely as the oppressed. A man who takes away another man’s freedom is a prisoner of hatred; he is locked behind the bars of prejudice and narrow-mindedness. I am not truly free ¡fI am taking away someone’s este freedom, just as surely as I am not free when freedom is taken from me. The oppressed and the oppressor alike are robbed of their humanity.

Question 1.
To author, the oppressor must be liberated just as surely:
(a) as the stress
(b) as the oppressed
(c) as the others
(d) as the author

Answer

(b) as the oppressed

Question 2.
A man who takes away another man’s freedom is:
(a) a prisoner of superiority
(b) a prisoner of lust
(c) a prisoner of self
(d) a prisoner of hatred

Answer

(d) a prisoner of hatred

Question 3.
I am not truly free if lam:
(a) taking away other’s freedom
(b) taking away other’s money
(c) taking away other’s cow
(d) taking away other’s books

Answer

(a) taking away other’s freedom

Question 4.
The word ‘prejudice’ means:
(a) revenge
(b) a strong dislike without any good reason
(c) a strong feeling of love
(d) irritation

Answer

(b) a strong dislike without any good reason

Question 5.
‘1’ here refers to:
(a) Mbeki
(b) Zenani
(c) Nelson Mandela
(d) Kierk

Answer

(5)

It was only then J began to learn that my boyhood freedom was an illusion. When 1 discovered as a young man that my freedom had already been taken from me, that I began to hunger for it. At first, as a student I wanted freedom only for myself, the transitory freedoms of being able to stay out at night, read what I pleased and go where I chose. Later, as a young man in Johannesburg, I yearned for the basic and honorable freedom of achieving my potentially of earning my keep, of marrying and having a family – the freedom not to be obstructed in a lawful life.

Question 1.
‘1’ here refers to:
(a) Nelson Mandela
(b) Mbeki
(c) Kierk
(d) Zenani

Answer

(a) Nelson Mandela

Question 2.
The narrator learnt that his boyhood freedom was:
(a) an excited period
(b) a storm
(c) a promise
(d) an illusion

Answer

(d) an illusion

Question 3.
As a student the author wanted freedom only:
(a) for the family
(b) for himself
(c) for the parents
(d) for friends

Answer

(b) for himself

Question 4.
The word ‘yearned fort means:
(a) longed for
(b) deserted
(c) struggled
(d) pacified

Answer

(a) longed for

Question 5.
In Johannesberg, Mandela longed for the basic freedom of achieving his potential arid:
(a) of celebrating the moment
(b) of gathering more money
(c) of marrying and having a family
(d) of having a status

Answer

(6)

On the day of the inauguration, I was overwhelmed with a sense of history. In the first decade of the 20th century of few years after the bitter Anglo-Boer war and before my own birth, the white-skinned people of South Africa patched up their differences and created a system of racial domination against the dark-skinned people of their own land. The structure they created formed the basis of one of the harshest, most inhumane societies the world has ever known. Now, in the last decade of the twentieth century, and my own eight decads as a man, that system has been overturned forever and replaced by one that recognised the rights and freedoms of all peoples, regardless of the colour of their skin.

Question 1.
‘1’ here refers to:
(a) Klerk
(b) Zenani
(c) Nelson Mandela
(d) Mbeki

Answer

Question 2.
The narrator was overwhelmed with:
(a) a sense of charity
(b) a sense of gratitude
(c) a sense of insecurity
(d) a sense of history

Answer

(d) a sense of history

Question 3.
The system of racial domination against the Black of South Africa has beeu overturned:
(a) in the last decade of the 20th century
(b) in 18th century
(c) in late 18th century
(d) in the first decade of 19th century

Answer

(a) in the last decade of the 20th century

Question 4.
The system of racial domination has been replaced by a system that:
(a) confirms the education of the Blacks
(b) recognises the rights and freedom of all people
(c) recollects the bitter experiences
(d) focusses on the personality development

Answer

(b) recognises the rights and freedom of all people

Question 5.
The word ‘patched up’ means:
(a) solved
(b) filled
(c) pasted
(d) charmed

Answer

(a) solved

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers First Flight Prose

A Letter to God Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1

October 19, 2021September 22, 2021 by Pooja

Students often find it difficult to deal with various subjects, questions and their solutions, We recommend you all to use these NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English. Find the best NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers online. NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 1 A Letter to God with Answers pdf free download is available that can be used as a study guide by prepaying and downloading it from our website, which will include answers along with detailed explanations of each question’s answer options so you are guaranteed maximum marks in your next exam!

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 1 A Letter to God with Answers

Enhance your subject knowledge through the A Letter to God MCQ Online Test and lay a stronger foundation of your basics. Verify your answers with MCQ on A Letter to God provided and know where you went wrong. Use the Objective Questions of Class 10th A Letter to God MCQ with Answers provided below and understand all the concepts easily. Lencho, a farmer, who is the protagonist of the story, writes a letter to God. In the letter, he seeks help from the Almighty as he discovers his entire crop yield has been destroyed by a devastating hailstorm. Although his wishes get fulfilled partially, if not completely, he remains ungrateful in the end.

Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the most appropriate alternative from those given below:

(1)

One of the employees, who was a postman and also helped at the post office, went to his boss laughing heartily and showed him the letter to God. Never in his career as a postman had he known that address. The postmaster, a fat, amiable fellow – also broke out laughing, but almost immediately he turned serious and, tapping the letter on his desk, commented : “What faith! I wish I had the faith of the man who wrote this letter. Starting up a correspondence with God!”

Question 1.
Lencho had written that letter to:
(a) Sarpanch
(b) God
(c) Neighbour
(d) Brother

Answer

(b) God

Question 2.
The postman at the post office laughed because :
(a) he received a parcel
(b) he had irritation
(c) the postman said something
(d) the letter was addressed ‘To God’

Answer

(d) the letter was addressed ‘To God’

Question 3.
The postmaster was impressed with:
(a) postmaster’s devotion
(b) clerk’s work
(c) Lencho’s faith in God
(d) his friends’ care

Answer

Question 4.
The postmaster decided to collect money from his employees:
(a) to retain Lencho’s faith
(b) to retain clerk’s devotion
(c) to retain Sarpanch’s order
(d) none of the above

Answer

(a) to retain Lencho’s faith

Question 5.
The noun form of ‘amiable’ is:
(a) amiably
(b) amicable
(c) amicably
(d) amiability

Answer

(d) amiability

(2)

“It’s really getting bad now,” exclaimed the man. “I hope it passes quickly.” It did not pass quickly. For an hour the hail rained on the house, the garden, the hillside, the cornfield, on the whole valley. The field was white, as if covered with salt. Not a leaf remained on the trees. The corn was totally destroyed. The flowers were gone from the plants. Lencho’s soul was filled with sadness.

Question 1.
“It’s really getting bad now….” ‘It’ refers here to :
(a) rain
(b) sunlight
(c) sand storm
(d) hailstones

Answer

(d) hailstones

Question 2.
Lencho hoped it would pass quickly because:
(a) the ripecorn would flourish more
(b) the ripecorn would be destroyed in it
(c) the land was over flooded
(d) the house would get down

Answer

(b) the ripecorn would be destroyed in it

Question 3.
Lencho’s hopes were belied because:
(a) the sunlight was enough
(b) the rain was still going on
(c) the hail lasted for an hour
(d) the children were unsuccessful

Answer

Question 4.
The noun form of ‘destroyed’ is:
(a) destroy
(b) destruction
(c) destroyable
(d) destructive

Answer

(b) destruction

Question 5.
The field was white as if:
(a) covered with cotton
(b) covered with milk
(c) covered with maida
(d) covered with salt

Answer

(d) covered with salt

(3)

The house – the only one in the entire valley – sat on the crest of a low hill. From this height one could see the river and the field of ripe corn dotted with the flowers that always promised a good harvest. The only thing the earth needed was a downpour or at least a shower. Throughout the morning Lencho – who knew his fields intimately – had done nothing else but see the ‘sky towards the north-east.

Question 1.
Lencho was a:
(a) landlord
(b) farmer
(c) labourer
(d) worker

Answer

(b) farmer

Question 2.
The house was situated on the crest:
(a) of a high hill
(b) of a low bill
(c) near the valley
(d) of a nearby village

Answer

(b) of a low bill

Question 3.
The house is called ‘the house’ because:
(a) it is different
(b) it is a pakka villa
(c) it was built last year
(d) it was the only one in the valley

Answer

(d) it was the only one in the valley

Question 4.
The ripe corn dotted with flowers promised:
(a) a lot of dollars
(b) a store of canes
(c) a good harvest
(d) a good bamboo crop

Answer

Question 5.
The word ‘downpour’ means:
(a) rain
(b) hail
(c) drizzle
(d) dew

Answer

(a) rain

(4)

Lencho went up to the window to ask for paper and ink. On the public writing-table, he started to write, with much wrinkling of his brow, caused by the effort he had to make to express his ideas. When he finished, he went to the window to buy a stamp which he licked and then affixed to the envelope with a blow of his fist. The moment the letter fell into the mail box the postmaster went to open it. It said : “God : Of the money that I asked for, only seventy pesos reached me. Send me the rest, since I need it very much. But don’t send it to me through the mail, because the post office employees are a bunch of crooks.”

Question 1.
On the public writing-table, Lencho started to write:
(a) a letter to his brother
(b) a letter to village Sarpanch
(c) a letter to postman
(d) a letter to God

Answer

(d) a letter to God

Question 2.
Lencho was a strong farmer who knew:
(a) how to write
(b) how to skip
(c) how to train
(d) how to fight

Answer

(a) how to write

Question 3.
Lencho needed more money to sow his field again since :
(a) the sun had burnt it
(b) the hail had destroyed the corn
(c) locusts destroyed it
(d) rainless harvest had no value

Answer

(b) the hail had destroyed the corn

Question 4.
He felt disgusted and felt that :
(a) the postrnaster is faithful
(b) the post office employees are dishonest
(c) the postman demanded money
(d) God ignored him

Answer

(b) the post office employees are dishonest

Question 5.
The noun form of ‘express’ is:
(a) expresso
(b) expressable
(c) expression
(d) expressably

Answer

(5)

All through the night, Lencho thought only of his one hope : the help of God, whose eyes, as he had been instructed, see everything, even what is deed in one’s conscience. Lencho was an ox of a man, working like an animal in the fields, but still he knew how to write. The following Sunday, at day break, he began to write a letter which he himself would carry to town and place in the mail.

Question 1.
Lencho was an ox of a man. It means that:
(a) he has an ox
(b) he is a very strong man
(c) his ox is faithful
(d) he feels strength

Answer

(b) he is a very strong man

Question 2.
Lencho thought all through the night about:
(a) the help of elder brother
(b) the help of Sarpanch
(c) the help of neighbours
(d) the help of God

Answer

(d) the help of God

Question 3.
He began to write a letter on:
(a) Saturday at morning
(b) Monday at lunch time
(c) Sunday at daybreak
(d) Tuesday at dusk

Answer

Question 4.
The antonym of ‘hope’ is:
(a) hopeful
(b) stress
(c) despair
(d) irritate

Answer

Question 5.
Whose eyes see everything…’Whose’ refers to:
(a) God’s
(b) Sarpanch’s
(c) Brother’s
(d) Wife’s

Answer

(a) God’s

(6)

With a satisfied expression he regarded the field of ripe corn with its flowers, draped in a curtain of rain. But suddenly a strong wind began to blow and along with the rain very large hailstones began to fall. These truly did resemble new silver coins. The boys, exposing themselves to the rain, ran out to collect the frozen pearls. “It’s really getting bad now”, exclaimed the man. “I hope it passes quickly.” It did not pass quickly. For an hour the hail rained on the house, the garden, the hillside, the cornfield, on the whole valley.

Question 1.
Lencho looked satisfied when:
(a) he saw his children playing
(b) he saw his wife cooking
(c) he saw his field of ripe-corn
(d) he saw the heavy downpour

Answer

Question 2.
The boy ran out of the house to:
(a) play hockey
(b) collect corn flowers
(c) gather silver coins
(d) collect the hailstones

Answer

(d) collect the hailstones

Question 3.
Lencho the farmer hoped that:
(a) the rain would continue
(b) the hail would stop
(c) the sun would set
(d) the moon would disappear

Answer

(b) the hail would stop

Question 4.
The word ‘resemble’ means:
(a) to look like one
(b) to look different
(c) to look sick
(d) to look pleased

Answer

(a) to look like one

Question 5.
Lencho was filled with sadness because:
(a) his field of corn was destroyed
(b) his child hurt his toe
(c) his wife had cook-burn
(d) his pocket was picked

Answer

(a) his field of corn was destroyed

Conclusion:

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers First Flight Prose

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 2 The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China with Answers

October 21, 2021September 22, 2021 by Pooja

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 10 History, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 2 The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 10 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible! You can practice and test your subject knowledge by solving this MCQ of Chapter 2 History Objective Questions.

The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Class 10 History Chapter 2 MCQ with Answers, can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ on The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China with Answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
The elites in Vietnam were educated in:
(a) Chinese and French
(b) Chinese and Vietnamese
(c) Chinese and Confucianism
(d) Chinese.

Answer

Answer: (c) Chinese and Confucianism
The elites were educated in Chinese and Confucianism.

Question 2.
The founder of Hoa Hao was a man called:
(a) Ho Chin
(b) Huynh Phu So
(c) Liang Qichao
(d) Phan Boi Chau

Answer

Answer: (b) Huynh Phu So
He was called Huynh Phu So.

Question 3.
One nationalist who was educated in the Confucian tradition was:
(а) Phan Boi Chau
(b) Ho Chin
(c) Liang Qichao
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (а) Phan Boi Chau
It was Phan Bio Chau.

Question 4.
In 1911, the long-established mon-archy in China was overthrown by a popular movement under:
(а) Phan Boi Chau
(b) Ho Chin
(c) Liang Qichao
(d) Sun-Yat-Sen

Answer

Answer: (d) Sun-Yat-Sen
It was called Sim-Vat-Sen.

Question 5.
The Vietnamese Communist Party was later renamed:
(a) Chinese Communist Party
(b) Indo Communist Party
(c) Indo-Chinese Communist Party
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) Indo-Chinese Communist Party
It was renamed Indo-Chinese Communist Party.

Question 6.
After eight years of fighting, the French were defeated in:
(a) 1964 at Dien Bien Phu.
(b) 1944 at Dien Bien Phu.
(c) 1954 at Dien Bien Phu.
(d) 1964 at Dien Phu.

Answer

Answer: (c) 1954 at Dien Bien Phu.
The French were defeated in 1954 at Dien Bien Phu.

Question 7.
The Supreme Frenen Commander of the French armies was:
(a) General Thomas Navarre
(b) Henry Navarre
(c) John Navarre
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) Henry Navarre
He was Henry Navarre.

Question 8.
The Bao Dai regime was soon overthrown by a coup led by:
(a) Ho Chi Minh
(b) Ngo Dinh Diem
(c) Phan Boi Chau
(d) Liang Qichao

Answer

Answer: (b) Ngo Dinh Diem
It was led by Ngo Dinh Diem.

Question 9.
Agent Orange a defoliant plant killer was stored in:
(а) Drums with oranges in them.
(b) Drums marked with orange and red bands.
(c) Drums marked with orange band.
(d) Baskets of oranges.

Answer

Answer: (c) Drums marked with orange band.
It was stored in drums marked with orange band.

Question 10.
Do Sam was a Colonel in the:
(a) US artillery regiment.
(b) South Vietnamese regiment.
(c) North Vietnamese regiment.
(d) French artillery regiment.

Answer

Answer: (c) North Vietnamese regiment.
He was a Colonel in the North-Vietnamese regiment.

Question 11.
In 1913, the nationalist Phan Boi Chau wrote a play based on the lives of the:
(а) Trung sisters
(b) Srung sisters
(c) Chinese sisters
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (а) Trung sisters
On the lives of the Trung Sisters who samified their lives for the country.

Question 12.
In the 1960s, photographs in magazines and journals showed:
(а) martyr as brave soldiers
(b) men as brave soldiers
(c) woman as brave soldiers
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) woman as brave soldiers
Woman as brave soldiers.

Question 13.
The extension of the war created strong relations even within:
(a) France
(b) China
(c) India
(d) US

Answer

Answer: (d) US
Even within US.

Question 14.
A peace settlement was signed in Paris:
(а) in January 1972
(b) in January 1973
(c) in January 1974
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) in January 1974
It was signed in January, 1974.

Question 15.
Nationalism in Vietnam emerged:
(a) Through the efforts of one society only to fight against the French.
(b) Through the efforts of the British to fight against the French.
(c) Through the efforts of different sections of society to fight against the French.
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) T the efforts of different sections of society to fight against the French.
Nationalism in Vietnam emerged through the efforts of different sections of society to fight against the French.

Question 16.
French Indo-China was formed:
(a) In 1865, after the French assumed control of Tonkin.
(b) In 1886, after the French assumed control of Tonkin and Anaam.
(c) In 1887, after the French assumed control of Tonkin and Anaam.
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) In 1887, after the French assumed control of Tonkin and Anaam.
It was formed in 1887, after the French assumed control of Tonkin and Anaam.

Question 17.
The first link with Yunan in China was completed in:
(a) 1910
(b) 1911
(c) 1909
(d) 1912

Answer

Answer: (a) 1910
It was completed in 1910.

Question 18.
The second link with Vietnam to Siam was:
(a) Via the Combodian capital of Phnoam Penh
(b) Via the Cambodian capital of Laos
(c) Via China
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (a) Via the Combodian capital of Phnoam Penh
It was via the Combodian capital of Phnoem Penh.

Question 19.
The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on:
(a) Rice cultivation and jute plantation.
(b) Rice cultivation and tea plantation.
(c) Rice cultivation and rubber plantation.
(d) Tea and rubber plantation.

Answer

Answer: (c) Rice cultivation and rubber plantation.
It was based on rice cultivation and rubber plantation.

Question 20.
The French needed an educated local labour force:
(a) To be loyal to them
(b) To understand them better
(c) But they feared that education might create problems.
(d) But they feared that all the . Vietnamese may not convert into Christians.

Answer

Answer: (c) But they feared that education might create problems.
The French needed an educated local labour force but they feared that education might create problems.

Question 21.
In 1925, in a population of 17 million:
(a) there were less than 500 who passed the examination.
(b) there were less than 400 who passed the examination.
(c) there were less than 600 who passed the examination.
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) There were less than 400 who passed the examination.
There were less than 400 who passed the examination.

Question 22.
The Tonkin Free School was started in 1907:
(a) To provide a Western-style education.
(b) To provide a French-style education
(c) To provide a modern-style education.
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (a) To provide a Western-style education.
It was started to provide a Western-style education.

Question 23.
In 1926, a major protest erupted in:
(a) The Tonkin Free School
(b) Ho Chin Free School
(c) Saigon Natives Girls School
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Saigon Natives Girls School
In Saigon Native Girls School when some students were expelled from the school.

Question 24.
Schools in Vietnam became an:
(a) Important place for education.
(b) Important place for political battles.
(c) Important place for political and cultural battles.
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) Important place for political and cultural battles.
Schools in Vietnam became an important place for political and cultural battles.

Question 25.
The Vietnamese Communist Party was formed by:
(a) Ho Chin Minh in 1931
(b) Ho Chin Minh in 1929
(c) Ho Chin Minh in 1930
(d) Ho Chin Minh in 1932

Answer

Answer: (c) Ho Chin Minh in 1930
It was formed by Ho Chin Minh in 1930.

Question 26.
In 1903, the modern part of Hanoi was struck by:
(a) famine
(b) drought
(c) bubonic plague
(d) US bombs.

Answer

Answer: (c) bubonic plague
It was struck by bubonic plague.

Question 27.
Defeated by the resistance of the weak:
(a) The Chinese were forced to scrap the bounty programme.
(b) The Dutch were forced to scrap the bounty programme.
(c) The French were forced to scrap the bounty programme.
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) The French were forced to scrap the bounty programme.
The French were forced to scrap the bounty programme.

Question 28.
Vietnam’s religious beliefs were a mixture of:
(a) Buddhism, Jainism and local practices.
(b) Buddhism, Confucianism and local practices.
(c) Buddhism and local practices.
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) Buddhism, Confucianism and local practices.
Vietnam’s religious beliefs were a mixture of Buddhism, Confucianism and local practices.

Question 29.
An early movement against French control and the spread of Christianity was the:
(a) Students Revolt in 1869
(b) Teachers Revolt in 1868
(c) Scholars Revolt in 1868
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) Scholars Revolt in 1868
It was the Scholar’s Revolt in 1868.

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. Indentured labour refers to a form of labour widely used in the plantations from the mid-nineteenth century.

Answer

Answer: True

2. French colonisation was based only on economic exploitation.

Answer

Answer: False

3. The French needed an educated local labour force but they feared that education might create problems.

Answer

Answer: True

4. To consolidate their power, the French did not have to counter the Chinese influence.

Answer

Answer: False

5. The Tonkin Free School was started in 1907 to provide western style education.

Answer

Answer: True

6. In 1936, a major protest erupted in the Saigon Native Girls School.

Answer

Answer: False

7. The Vietnamese intellectuals feared that Vietnam was losing not just control over its territory but its very identity.

Answer

Answer: True

8. In 1903, the modern part of Hanoi was struck by bubonic plague.

Answer

Answer: True

9. The French hired Vietnamese workers and paid them for each rat they caught.

Answer

Answer: True

10. An early movement against French control and the spread of Christianity was the Scholars Revolt in 1867.

Answer

Answer: False

11. Confucious, a French thinker, developed a philosophical system based on good conduct, practical wisdom and proper social relationships.

Answer

Answer: False

12. Vietnam gained formal independence in 1945, after India.

Answer

Answer: False

13. Indo-China comprises the modern countries of Vietnam, Laos and Cambodia.

Answer

Answer: True

14. Vietnam was not linked to the maritime silk route.

Answer

Answer: False

15. The colonisation of Vietnam by the British brought the people of the country into conflict with the colonisers in all areas of life.

Answer

Answer: False

16. French troops landed in Vietnam in 1858 and by the mid-1880s they had established a firm grip over the northern region.

Answer

Answer: True

17. French assumed control of Tonkin and Anaam and in 1877, French Indo-China was formed.

Answer

Answer: False

18. Colonies were considered essential to supply raw materials and labour.

Answer

Answer: False

19. The British began by building canals and draining lands in the Mekong delta to increase cultivation.

Answer

Answer: False

20. Bernard suggested that there were several barriers to economic growth in Vietnam.

Answer

Answer: True

21. The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantation.

Answer

Answer: True

22. Concentration camp was a warehouse where people were detained without due process of law.

Answer

Answer: False

23. Phan Boi Chau met the Chinese reformer Liang Qichao in Yokohama in 1905.

Answer

Answer: True

24. ‘The History of the Loss of Vietnam’ was written under the strong influence and advice of Qichao.

Answer

Answer: True

25. Republic refers to a form of government based on popular consent and proper representation.

Answer

Answer: True

26. Japan defeated Russia in 1908.

Answer

Answer: False

27. In 1911, the established monarchy in China was over thrown by a popular movement under Sun Yat-sen and a Republic was set up.

Answer

Answer: True

28. The Great Depression of the 1920s had a profound impact on Vietnam.

Answer

Answer: False

29. In 1940, Japan occupied Vietnam, as part of its imperial drive to control South east Asia.

Answer

Answer: True

30. Napalm is an organic compound used to thicken gasoline for fire bombs.

Answer

Answer: True

31. The NLF occupied the presidential palace in Sarigon on 30 April, 1975 and unified Vietnam.

Answer

Answer: True

32. The port of Faifo was founded by French merchants.

Answer

Answer: False

33. Nationalism in Vietnam emerged through the efforts of different sections of society to fight against the French.

Answer

Answer: True

34. After the Franco-Chinese war the French assumed control of Tonkin and Amaan and in 1887, French Indo-China was formed.

Answer

Answer: True

35. Indentured Vietnamese labour was not widely used in the rubber plantations.

Answer

Answer: False

36. School textbooks glorified the French and justified colonial rule.

Answer

Answer: True

37. The Tonkin school encouraged the adoption of Chinese styles such as having a short haircut.

Answer

Answer: False

38. The battle against French colonial education became part of the larger battle against colonialism and for independence.

Answer

Answer: True

39. Syncretic aims to bring together different beliefs and practices seeing their essential unity rather than their difference.

Answer

Answer: True

40. Hoa Hao movement began in 1939 and gained great popularity in the fertile Mekong delta area.

Answer

Answer: True

41. The French did not suppress the movement inspired by Huynh Phu So.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the following

Column-A	Column-B	Column-C
1. French troops	(a) started in	(A) 1940
2. Tonkin Free School	(b) movement began in	(B) 1972
3. A major protest erupted in	(c) Vietnam in	(C) 1974
4. Kennedy decides	(d) bombed in December	(D) 1975
5. A rat hunt	(e) was signed in Paris in	(E) 1939
6. Hoa Hao	(f) Vietnam in	(F) 1858
7. Japan occupied	(g) to increase US military power in Vietnam	(G) 1907
8. Hanoi was	(h) Saigon Native Girls School	(H) 1926
9. A peace settlement	(i) started in	(I) 1961
10. The NLF unified	(j) landed in Vietnam	(J) 1902

Answer

Answer:

Column-A	Column-B	Column-C
1. French troops	(j) landed in Vietnam	(F) 1858
2. Tonkin Free School	(a) started in	(G) 1907
3. A major protest erupted in	(h) Saigon Native Girls School	(H) 1926
4. Kennedy decides	(g) to increase US military power in Vietnam	(I) 1961
5. A rat hunt	(i) started in	(J) 1902
6. Hoa Hao	(b) movement began in	(E) 1939
7. Japan occupied	(c) Vietnam in	(A) 1940
8. Hanoi was	(d) bombed in December	(B) 1972
9. A peace settlement	(e) was signed in Paris in	(C) 1974
10. The NLF unified	(f) Vietnam in	(D) 1975

Column-A	Column-B
1. Indentured labour	(a) Person or ideas that mislead
2. Syncratic	(b) A form of government based on popular consent and representation
3. Republic	(c) Aims to bring different beliefs and practices together
4. Obscurantist	(d) An organic compound used for fire bombs
5. Napalm	(e) A form of labour used in the plantations

Answer

Answer:

Column-A	Column-B
1. Indentured labour	(e) A form of labour used in the plantations
2. Syncratic	(c) Aims to bring different beliefs and practices together
3. Republic	(b) A form of government based on popular consent and representation
4. Obscurantist	(a) Person or ideas that mislead
5. Napalm	(d) An organic compound used for fire bombs

Column-A	Column-B
(a) French troops landed in Vietnam in	1. 1976
(b) Tonkin Free School started in	2. 1975
(c) Nguyen Anh becomes emperor	3. 1974
(d) Indo-China becomes a French colony	4. 1954
(e) Creation of the Indo-China Union	5. 1930
(f) Ho Chi Minh forms the Vietnamese Communist Party	6. 1887
(g) The French army is defeated at Dien Bien Phu	7. 1867
(h) Paris Peace Treaty	8. 1802
(i) NLF troopes enter Sarigon	9. 1907
(j) The Socialist Republic of Vietnam was proclaimed	10. 1858

Answer

Answer:

Column-A	Column-B
(a) French troops landed in Vietnam in	10. 1858
(b) Tonkin Free School started in	9. 1907
(c) Nguyen Anh becomes emperor	8. 1802
(d) Indo-China becomes a French colony	7. 1867
(e) Creation of the Indo-China Union	6. 1887
(f) Ho Chi Minh forms the Vietnamese Communist Party	5. 1930
(g) The French army is defeated at Dien Bien Phu	4. 1954
(h) Paris Peace Treaty	3. 1974
(i) NLF troopes enter Sarigon	2. 1975
(j) The Socialist Republic of Vietnam was proclaimed	1. 1976

Fill in the blanks

1. Nationalism in ……………………… emerged through the efforts of different sections of society to fight against the French.

Answer

Answer: Vietnam

2. French assumed control of ……………………… and ……………………… and, in 1887, French Indo-China was formed.

Answer

Answer: Tonkin, Anaam

3. ……………………… was part of the French team that explored the Mekong river.

Answer

Answer: Gamier

4. Vietnam exported two-thirds of its rice production and by 1931 became the ……………………… largest exporter of rice in the world.

Answer

Answer: third

5. ……………………… Vietnamese labour was widely used in the rubber plantations.

Answer

Answer: Indentured

6. Bernard suggested that there were several barriers to economic growth in ………………………

Answer

Answer: Vietnam

7. ……………………… was seen as one way to civilise the ‘native’.

Answer

Answer: Education

8. The Vietnamese were represented as ……………………… and ……………………… capable of manual labour but not of intellectual reflection.

Answer

Answer: Primitive backward

9. The ……………………… part of Hanoi was built as a beautiful and clean city with wide avenues and a well laid out sewer system.

Answer

Answer: French

10. ………………………, a Chinese thinker, developed a philosophical system based on good conduct, practical wisdom and proper social relationships.

Answer

Answer: Confucius

11. The founder of Hoa Hao was a man called ………………………

Answer

Answer: Huynh Phu So

12. Phan Boi Chau met the Chinese reformer ……………………… in Yokohama in 1905.

Answer

Answer: Liang Qichao

13. ‘The History of the Loss of Vietnam’ was written under the strong influence and advice of ………………………

Answer

Answer: Qichao

14. In 1911, the long established monarchy in China was overthrown by a popular movement under ……………………… , and a republic was set-up.

Answer

Answer: Sun-Yat-Sen

15. In February 1930, ……………………… brought together competing nationalist groups to establish the Vietnamese Communist Party.

Answer

Answer: Ho Chi Minh

16. After eight years of fighting, the French were defeated in 1954 at ………………………

Answer

Answer: Dien Bien Phu

17. The Bao Dai regime was soon overthrown by a camp led by ………………………

Answer

Answer: Ngo Dinh Diem

18. Hollywood made films in support of the war, such as John Wayne’s ………………………

Answer

Answer: Green Berets

19. ……………………… in Vietnam enjoyed greater equality than in China, particularly among the lower classes.

Answer

Answer: Women

20. Actors like ……………………… even visited North Vietnam and praised their heroic defence of the country.

Answer

Answer: Jane Fonda

Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 2 The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China with Answers useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China Class 10 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 SST History with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

October 11, 2021September 22, 2021 by Pooja

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 10 Science Biology, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in Class 10 Biology and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

Management of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Management of Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions of Class 10 Science Chapter 16 MCQ can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Management of Natural Resources Class 10 with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : About 70 percent of earth’s volume is water.
Reason (R) : Water is easily available for all the population living on the Earth.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
What is the purpose of rain-water harvesting?
(a) To hold rain water on the surface of the earth.
(b) To recharge ground water.
(c) To use water for the irrigation of crops.
(d) To rear fish

Answer

(b) To recharge ground water.

Question 3.
Surangams are the age-old concept of water harvesting in
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerela
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

(b) Kerela

Question 4.
The quality of environment can be improved by-
(a) deforestation
(b) over use of natural environment
(c) erosion
(d) conservation

Answer

(d) conservation

Question 5.
Which one of the following is an example of nonrenewable resource?
(a) Water
(b) Vegetation
(c) Wind
(d) Coal and minerals

Answer

(d) Coal and minerals

Question 6.
Which of the following community in Rajasthan has a religious tenet of conservation of forest and wildlife ?
(a) Munda
(b) Jaishwal
(c) Bishnoi
(d) Jain

Answer

Question 7.
Which of the following is not an use of forest ?
(a) Controls floods.
(b) Used to make paper.
(c) Causes soil erosion.
(d) Resin, gum and drugs are obtained.

Answer

Question 8.
Which environmental problem is associated with the construction of high rise dams?
(a) A large number of human settlements are submerged in the water.
(b) It contributes to deforestation and loss of biodiversity.
(c) It involves the spending of huge amounts of money.
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

Question 9.
What do you mean by GAP
(a) Government Action Plan
(b) Ganga Action Plan
(c) Government Agency for Pollution Control
(d) Government Animal Protection Plant

Answer

(b) Ganga Action Plan

Question 10.
Ganga Action plan was started in-
(a) 1975
(b) 1985
(c) 1995
(d) 2005

Answer

(b) 1985

Question 11.
Which of the following canals brought about greenery in Rajasthan ?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi Canal
(b) Indira Gandhi Canal
(c) Jawaharlal Canal
(d) Mahatma Gandhi Canal

Answer

(b) Indira Gandhi Canal

Question 12.
Which of the following is the age old concept of water harvesting system in Madhya Pradesh ?
(a) Bundhis
(b) Ponds
(c) Bandharas
(d) Nadis

Answer

(a) Bundhis

Question 13.
The three R’S that will help us to conserve natural resources for long term use are
(a) reduce, reuse, recycle
(b) reduce, regenerate, reuse
(c) reduce, reuse, redistribute
(d) recycle, regenerate, reuse

Answer

(a) Reduce, reuse, recycle

Question 14.
Assertion (A) : There is wide variety and species of animals and plants found in forest.
Reason (R) : Forest should be protected in order save wildlife and natural vegetation.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 15.
Assertion (A) : Coal is one of the major source for the production of electricity.
Reason (R) : Coal is non-renewable source of energy.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 16.
Ground water will not be depleted due to:
(a) afforestation
(b) thermal power plants
(c) loss of forest, and decreased rainfall
(d) cropping of high water demanding crops

Answer

(b) thermal power plants

Question 17.
Ground water will not be depleted due to –
(a) afforestation
(c) loss of forest and decreased rainfall
(b) thermal power plant
(d) growing of water demanding crops

Answer

(a) afforestation

Question 18.
Which one of the following is an example of renewable resource ?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Wildlife
(d) Natural gas

Answer

Question 19.
Which of the following is the ‘biodiversity hot spots’ ?
(a) Rivers
(b) Forests
(c) Deserts
(d) Oceans

Answer

(b) Forests

Question 20.
The most appropriate definition of any natural resources is that it is a substance that is
(a) present only on land
(b) available only in the forest
(c) a man-made substance placed in nature
(d) a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind

Answer

(d) a gift of nature very useful to mankind.

Question 21.
The Indira Gandhi Canal has brought greenery to considerable areas of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer

(b) Rajasthan

Question 22.
Select the incorrect statement.
(a) forests provide variety of products
(b) forests have greater plant diversity
(c) forests do not conserve soil
(d) forest conserve water

Answer

Question 23.
Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on which river?
(a) Ganga
(b) Sutluj
(c) Narmada
(d) Kaveri

Answer

Question 24.
Environment Day falls on
(a) 28th February
(b) 23rd March
(c) 5th June
(d) 16th August

Answer

Question 25.
Which one is inexhaustible natural resource?
(a) forests
(b) minerals
(c) coal
(d) water

Answer

(d) water

Question 26.
When we destroy a forest, we destroy
(a) the trees
(b) population of wildlife
(c) the environment
(d) food and shelter of wild animals

Answer

Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

And without any delay jump to the next chapters of Class 10 Science Biology MCQs:

Biology MCQs Questions for Class 10 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Biology with Answers PDF Download Chapter Wise

Chapter 6 Life Processes Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 7 Control and Coordination Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 15 Our Environment Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources Class 10 Biology MCQ

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

October 11, 2021September 22, 2021 by Pooja

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 10 Science Biology, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in Class 10 Biology and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

Our Environment Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions of Class 10 Science Chapter 15 MCQ can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Our Environment Class 10 with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Assertion: Vegetarian food habit is more beneficial to organisms.
Reason: Only 10% energy is available as food from one trophic level to next.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
In natural ecosystems, decomposers include-
(a) only bacteria and fungi
(b) only microscopic animals
(c) herbivores and carnivores
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

(a) only bacteria and fungi

Question 3.
The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about-
(a) 1%
(b) 8%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%

Answer

(a) 1%

Question 4.
The second trophic level is always of-
(a) herbivores
(b) autotrophs
(c) carnivores
(c) producers

Answer

(a) herbivores

Question 5.
The decomposers in an ecosystem-
(a) convert organic material to inorganic forms
(b) convert inorganic material to simpler forms
(c) convert inorganic material into organic compound
(d) do not break down organic compound

Answer

(a) convert organic material to inorganic forms

Question 6.
Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
(a) Humus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Plants
(d) Fungi

Answer

(a) Humus

Question 7.
What will happen if all the deer are killed in the given food chain?
Grass → Deer → Lion
(a) The population of grass decreases.
(b) The population of lions increases.
(c) The population of lions remains unchanged.
(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Answer

(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a terrestrial ecosystem-
(a) forest
(b) desert
(c) aquarium
(d) grassland

Answer

Question 9.
In the garden ecosystem, which of the following are producers?
(a) Insects
(b) Snakes
(c) Grasses
(d) Rabbits

Answer

Question 10.
Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Plastic mugs
(b) Leather belts
(c) Silver foil
(d) Iron nails

Answer

(b) Leather belts

Question 11.
Which of the following is an autotroph?
(a) Lion
(b) Insect
(c) Tree
(d) Mushroom

Answer

Question 12.
Which of the following is a logical sequence of food chain
(a) producer → consumer → decomposer
(b) producer → decomposer → consumer
(c) consumer → producer → decomposer
(d) decomposer → producer → consumer

Answer

(a) producer → consumer → decomposer

Question 13.
A food chain comprising birds, green plants, fish and man. The concentration of harmful chemical entering the food chain will be maximum in
(a) green plants
(b) man
(c) birds
(d) fish

Answer

(b) man

Question 14.
Ozone layer is damaged by-
(a) methane
(b) carbon-dioxide
(c) Sulphur-dioxide
(d) CFCs

Answer

(d) CFCs

Question 15.
In an ecosystem, herbivores represent
(a) producers
(b) primary consumers
(c) secondary consumers
(d) decomposers

Answer

(b) primary consumers

Question 16.
Which one of the following will undergo fastest bio-degradation?
(a) Mango seed
(b) Wood
(c) Mango peel
(d) Mango pulp

Answer

(d) Mango pulp

Question 17.
Assertion: Biodegradable waste and non biodegradable waste should be discarded separately,
Reason: Biodegradable waste are not harmful.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

Question 18.
Assertion: Ozone layer is getting depleted at upper atmosphere which is a cause of concern.
Reason: CFC reacts with ozone and breaks it.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 19.
Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always-
(a) unidirectional
(b) bidirectional
(c) multidirectional
(d) no specific direction.

Answer

(a) unidirectional

Question 20.
The ecosystem of earth is known as-
(a) biome
(b) community
(c) biosphere
(c) association

Answer

Question 21.
Which of the two in the following sets belong to the same trophic level?
(a) Grass : Grasshopper
(b) Goat : Spider
(c) Hawk : Rat
(d) Frog : Lizard

Answer

(d) Frog : Lizard

Question 22.
Acid rain is caused by the oxides of
(a) carbon
(b) nitrogen only
(c) sulphur only
(d) sulphur and nitrogen

Answer

(d) sulphur and nitrogen

Question 23.
The depletion of the ozone layer causes
(a) global wanning
(b) earthquakes
(c) increased UV radiations
(d) acid rain

Answer

Question 24.
Which one of the following pairs belong to the category of primary consumers?
(a) Eagle and snake
(b) Grasshoppers & cattle
(c) Snake and frog
(d) Water beetles & fish

Answer

(b) Grasshoppers & cattle

Question 25.
Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Aluminium can
(b) Polythene bag
(c) Cowdung
(d) DDT

Answer

Question 26.
Which of the following is non-biodegradable-
(a) paper
(b) wood
(c) cloth
(d) plastic

Answer

(d) plastic

Question 27.
Trophic level in an ecosystem represents
(a) oxygen level
(b) water level
(c) energy level
(d) salt level

Answer

Question 28.
Excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation causes
(a) inflammation of liver
(b) cancer of skin
(c) damage to the lungs
(d) jaundice

Answer

(b) cancer of skin

Question 29.
Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
(a) water
(b) polluted air
(c) deficient food supply
(d) decrease in energy at higher trophic levels

Answer

(d) decrease in energy at higher trophic levels

Question 30.
A food chain always starts with
(a) respiration
(b) photosynthesis
(c) decay
(d) nitrogen fixation

Answer

(b) photosynthesis

Question 31.
Which of the following is non- biodegradable?
(a) Wool
(b) Nylon
(c) Animal bones
(d) Tea leaves

Answer

(b) Nylon

Question 32.
First link in any food chain is usually green plants because
(a) they are widely distributed
(b) they are fixed at one place in the soil
(c) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food using sunlight
(d) there are more herbivores than carnivores

Answer

Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 10 Science Our Environment MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

And without any delay jump to the next chapters of Class 10 Science Biology MCQs:

Biology MCQs Questions for Class 10 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Biology with Answers PDF Download Chapter Wise

Chapter 6 Life Processes Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 7 Control and Coordination Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 15 Our Environment Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources Class 10 Biology MCQ

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

October 11, 2021September 22, 2021 by Pooja

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 10 Science Biology, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in Class 10 Biology and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

Sources of Energy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Sources of Energy Multiple Choice Questions of Class 10 Science Chapter 14 MCQ can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Sources of Energy Class 10 with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Assertion: Fuel has to be burnt to obtain heat energy.
Reason: The minimum temperature to which a fuel must be heated so that it may catch fire and start burning is known as ignition temperature.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion: The major constituent of biogas is methane.
Reason: Biogas is produced by the aerobic degradation by animal wastes like cow ding in the presence of water.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

Question 3.
Biogas is formed in the
(a) presence of air only
(b) presence of water only
(c) absence of air only
(d) presence of water and absence of air

Answer

(d) presence of water and absence of air

Question 4.
Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because
(a) biogas has lower calorific value.
(b) animal dung cake has high calorific value
(c) biogas bums smoke and leaves no residue
(d) biogas is used as a fuel for cooking only wheareas dung cake can be used for cooking, illuminant the lanterns.

Answer

Question 5.
Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately derived from the Sun’s energy?
(a) geothermal energy
(b) wind energy
(c) nuclear energy
(d) bio-mass

Answer

Question 6.
The working fluid in ocean thermal power plant is
(a) Volatile liquid like ammonia
(b) petrol
(c) charcoal
(d) liquified petroleum gas

Answer

(a) Volatile liquid like ammonia

Question 7.
Ocean thermal energy is produced due to
(a) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean.
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean.
(c) energy stored by waves in the ocean.
(d) tides rising out of the ocean.

Answer

(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean.

Question 8.
A device in which electricity is produced by the process of controlled nuclear fission reaction is called
(a) nuclear chain reaction
(b) hydel power plant
(c) nuclear reactor
(d) thermal power plant

Answer

Question 9.
India exploded her first underground nuclear device at
(a) Ranchi
(b) Kota
(c) Jaipur
(d) Pokhran

Answer

(d) Pokhran

Question 10.
Fusion reaction is also known as
(a) chemical reaction
(b) elastic scattering
(c) thermonuclear reaction
(d) photo nuclear reaction

Answer

Question 11.
A good fuel should possess
(a) high ignition temperature
(b) moderate ignition temperature
(c) high calorific value
(d) both high calorific value and moderate ignition temperature

Answer

(d) both high calorific value and moderate ignition temperature

Question 12.
Geothermal energy is
(a) Heat energy in the interior of earth
(b) energy of molten mars exists in the farm of magma inside the earth.
(c) molten lava on the surface of earth
(d) energy obtained from solar thermal electric plants

Answer

Question 13.
Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam across
(a) narrow opening to the sea
(b) wide opening to the sea
(c) the river in hilly trains
(d) the river in plane areas

Answer

(a) narrow opening to the sea

Question 14.
The variety of coal which has the highest car-bon content
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Bituminous
(d) Lignite

Answer

(a) Anthracite

Question 15.
Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum and natural gas in
(a) presence of air
(b) absence of air
(c) presence of sunlight
(d) none of the above

Answer

(b) absence of air

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a bio mass energy source?
(a) gobar gas
(b) coal
(c) wood
(d) nuclear energy

Answer

(d) nuclear energy

Question 17.
The main constituent of CNG is
(a) butane
(b) methane
(c) ethane
(d) propane

Answer

(b) methane

Question 18.
Hydropower plant are located in the
(a) desert area
(b) plane area
(c) hilly terrains
(d) None of the above

Answer

Question 19.
The use of reflector in the solar cooker is to
(a) Decrease efficiency
(b) create green house effect
(c) increase efficiency
(d) None of the above

Answer

Question 20.
Solar cells are made of
(a) metals
(b) insulator
(c) semi conductors
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Seine conductors

Question 21.
A solar cooker may not cook food if.
(a) Interior of the box and the container of food are perfectly shining.
(b) Glass sheet over the box is not closed.
(c) Solar cooker is placed in the shade.
(d) All the above

Answer

(d) All the above

Question 22.
Which of the following problem is associated with a burning of coal?
(а) Carbon-dioxide emission
(b) acid rain
(c) ash with toxic metal supurity
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

Question 23.
Assertion: Wind energy farms cannot be established every where.
Reason: The wind energy farms can be established only at those places where wind blows for most part of the year.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 24.
Assertion: Coke is a better fuel than coal.
Reason: Burning of coke cause air pollution.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

Question 25.
Unit of calorific value of a substance is
(a) Kcal
(b) Joules
(c) J kg
(d) J/kg

Answer

(d) J/kg

Question 26.
The material used for interconnection the solar cells in the solar panel is
(a) silicon
(b) silver
(c) aluminium
(d) copper

Answer

(b) silver

Question 27.
A solar panel is made by combining in an arrangement
(a) solar concentrator
(b) solar cookers
(c) solar cells
(d) solar chimney

Answer

Question 28.
Tidal energy is a farm of energy obtained from the
(a) motion of surface water in ponds
(b) ocean in the form of tidal waves
(c) tides occurs in the river water
(d) motion of the wave in sea

Answer

(b) ocean in the form of tidal waves

Question 29.
One major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is
(a) converting nuclear energy into electrical energy.
(b) sustaining the reaction.
(e) splitting the nuclei.
(d) disposing off spent fuel easily.

Answer

(d) disposing off spent fuel easily.

Question 30.
Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy?
(a) wood
(b) gobar-gas
(c) nuclear energy
(d) coal

Answer

Question 31.
A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on
(a) a sunny day
(b) a cloudy day
(c) a hot day
(d) a windy day

Answer

(b) a cloudy day

Question 32.
Which of the following gases is the main con-stituent of natural gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane

Answer

(a) Methane

Question 33.
Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy?
(a) Water
(b) Sun
(c) Fossil fuels
(d) Uranium

Answer

(b) Sun

Question 34.
Major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is to
(a) split heavy nucleus
(b) sustain nuclear reactions
(c) Convert nuclear energy into electricity
(d) dispose off spent fuel safety.

Answer

(d) dispose off spent fuel safety.

Question 35.
Which of following is more environment friendly?
(a) Burning of coal
(b) burning of fire wood
(c) burning of charcoal
(d) Burning of diesel.

Answer

Question 36.
U-235 will undergo fission by
(a) low energy neutrons only
(b) high energy neutrons only
(c) medium energy neutrons
(d) low energy protons only

Answer

(d) low energy protons only

Question 37.
Which of the following organism produces biogas from cow drug sherry in the biogas plant?
(a) aerobic bectria
(b) anaerobic bectria
(c) prolozoa
(d) fungi

Answer

(b) anaerobic bectria

Question 38.
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but still everybody discuss about the energy crisis because
(a) Energy transform into different form continuously.
(b) Usable form of energy is dissipated to the surroundings in less usable forms.
(c) Energy is consumed and cannot be used again.
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

Question 39.
The temperature inside the solar cooker ranges from
(a) 500-100°C
(b) 100-140°C
(c) 150-200°C
(d) 70-80°C

Answer

(b) 100-140°C

Question 40.
Select the important factor for the site selection of a thermal power plant.
(a) Distance from the populated area
(b) Availability of fuel
(c) Availability of water
(d) Cost of plant

Answer

Question 41.
Wind is caused due to
(a) uneven heating of earth’s surface
(b) rotation of earth
(c) local conditions
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

Question 42.
Solar cells are made of
(a) germanium
(b) silicon
(c) silver
(d) aluminium

Answer

(b) silicon

Question 43.
What are the disadvantage of solar energy
(a) A large surface area is required collect the solar
(b) Daily average of solar energy varies from 4 to 7 kwh/m2
(c) Highly hazardous toxic material is used in the manufacturing of solar device.
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

Question 44.
An ideal source of energy should have
(a) higher calorific value
(b) easy transportability
(c) easy accessibility
(d) All the above

Answer

(d) All the above

Question 45.
Radiations which are harmful to the living organisms are
(a) Infrared radiation.
(b) ultraviolet radiations
(c) Visible radiation.
(d) micro waves

Answer

(b) ultraviolet radiations

Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 10 Science Sources of Energy MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

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Biology MCQs Questions for Class 10 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Biology with Answers PDF Download Chapter Wise

Chapter 6 Life Processes Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 7 Control and Coordination Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 15 Our Environment Class 10 Biology MCQ
Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources Class 10 Biology MCQ

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

October 21, 2021September 22, 2021 by Pooja

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 10 History, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 10 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible! You can practice and test your subject knowledge by solving this MCQ of Chapter 1 History Objective Questions.

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Class 10 History Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers, can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ on The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Jacob and Wilhelm the two brothers who developed an interest in collecting old folktales were called :
(a) Bonn brothers
(b) Grimm brothers
(c) Twin brothers
(d) Trinn brothers

Answer

Answer: (b) Grimm brothers
They were called Grimm brothers

Question 2.
Awareness of women’s rights and interests based on the belief of the social, economic and political equality of the genders refers to:
(а) Suffrage
(b) feminist
(c) womanish
(d) Chartism

Answer

Answer: (b) feminist
It is called feminist.

Question 3.
The Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in the year:
(a) 1667
(b) 1867
(c) 1567
(d) 1777

Answer

Answer: (b) 1867
In the year 1867.

Question 4.
System of ideas reflecting a particular social and political vision refers to:
(a) Sociology
(b) Ideology
(c) democracy
(d) Philosophy

Answer

Answer: (b) Ideology
It is called Ideology.

Question 5.
In January 1871, the Prussian king who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles was:
(a) William II
(b) William I
(c) Napoleon
(d) Otto von Bismark

Answer

Answer: (b) William I
It was William I.

Question 6.
Like Germany, an another country which had a long history of political fragmentation was:
(a) Prussia
(b) Italy
(c) Russia
(d) Denmark

Answer

Answer: (b) Italy
It was Italy.

Question 7.
The Chief Minister who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was:
(a) Victor Emmanuel II
(b) William II
(c) Giuseppe
(d) Cavour

Answer

Answer: (d) Cavour
He was Cavour.

Question 8.
The most celebrated Italian freedom fighter was :
(a) Count Cavour
(b) Napoleon
(c) Garibaldi
(d) Mazzini

Answer

Answer: (c) Garibaldi
He was Garibaldi.

Question 9.
The symbol of ‘sword’ signifies:
(a) Heroism
(b) Being freed
(c) Willingness to make peace
(d) Readiness to fight

Answer

Answer: (d) Readiness to fight
It signifies readiness to fight.

Question 10.
The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was in the area called known as:
(a) Balkans
(b) Slovenia
(c) Serbia
(d) Croatia

Answer

Answer: (a) Balkans
It was in the Balkans.

Question 11.
Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster in:
(a) 1714
(b) 1614
(c) 1914
(d) 1814

Answer

Answer: (c) 1914
It led to disaster of Europe in 1914.

Question 12.
The female figure that represents the Republic of France was of:
(a) Germania
(b) Claudia
(c) Marianne
(d) Helen

Answer

Answer: (c) Marianne
It was of Marianne.

Question 13.
The female that became the allegory of the German nation was:
(а) Germania
(b) Claudia
(c) Marianne
(d) Helen

Answer

Answer: (а) Germania
It was of Germania.

Question 14.
A vision of a society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to actually exist refers to:
(a) Absolutist
(b) Utopian
(c) Suffrage
(d) Plebiscite

Answer

Answer: (b) Utopian
It refers to Utopian.

Question 15.
Serb nationalism gathered force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires in the year:
(a) 1705
(b) 1805
(c) 1605
(d) 1905

Answer

Answer: (d) 1905
It took place in the year 1905.

Question 16.
Who was Frederic Sorrieu?
(а) A German artist
(b) A French artist
(c) A Dutch artist
(d) A British artist

Answer

Answer: (b) A French artist
Frederic Sorrieu was a French artist.

Question 17.
The French revolution took place in the year:
(a) 1589
(b) 1689
(c) 1789
(d) 1889

Answer

Answer: (c) 1789
This took place in 1789.

Question 18.
The French armies moved into Holland in the year:
(a) 1590
(b) 1690
(c) 1790
(d) 1890

Answer

Answer: (c) 1790
This occured in the year 1790.

Question 19.
The Rays of the rising sun means:
(a) beginning of a new year
(b) beginning of a new period
(c) beginning of a new regime
(d) beginning of a new era

Answer

Answer: (d) beginning of a new era
The Rays of the rising sun means beginning of a new era.

Question 20.
Who said when France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold?
(a) Metternich
(b) Karol Kurpinski
(c) Karl Kaspar Fritz
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Metternich
It was Mettemich who said these words. This emphasized the importance of France at this time.

Question 21.
When did the First World War take place?
(a) 1714
(b) 1814
(c) 1914
(d) 1614

Answer

Answer: (c) 1914
It started in 1914.

Question 22.
Count Cavour was the Prime Minister of:
(a) Greece
(b) Rome
(c) Italy
(d) Sardinia

Answer

Answer: (d) Sardinia
He was the Prime Minister of Sardinia.

Question 23.
Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation?
(а) Treaty of seores
(b) Treaty of Constantinople
(c) Treaty of Versailles
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Treaty of Constantinople
The Treaty of Constantinople (1832) recognized the indepen-dence of Greece.

Question 24.
The Polish writer who coined the term ‘Young Poland’ for the first time was :
(а) Arthur Gorski
(b) Count Cavour
(c) Mazzini
(d) Napoleon

Answer

Answer: (а) Arthur Gorski
He was Arthur Gorski.

Question 25.
Which German philosopher claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the German people?
(a) Johann Gottfried
(b) Mazzini
(c) Count Cavour
(d)Napoleon

Answer

Answer: (a) Johann Gottfried
He was Johann Gottfried

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. After the defeat of Napoleon in 1820, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.

Answer

Answer: False

2. The first upheaval took place in France in July 1830.

Answer

Answer: True

3. The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 did not recognise Greece as an independent nation.

Answer

Answer: False

4. The Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867.

Answer

Answer: True

5. After 1850, nationalism in Europe moved away from its association with democracy and revolution.

Answer

Answer: False

6. In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Italy like Germany also had a long history of political fragmentation.

Answer

Answer: True

8. Frederic Sorrieu prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made up of ‘democratic and social Republics’.

Answer

Answer: True

9. Plebiscite means an indirect vote by which people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.

Answer

Answer: False

10. France was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute monarch.

Answer

Answer: True

11. Be citoyen refers to the citizen.

Answer

Answer: True

12. The Civil Code of 1804 is also known as the Sorrieu Code.

Answer

Answer: False

13. In Galicia, the aristocracy spoke Polish.

Answer

Answer: True

14. Suffrage means the right to join any party.

Answer

Answer: False

15. In 1834, a customs union was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German states.

Answer

Answer: True

16. Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat.

Answer

Answer: True

17. In 1871, Victor Emmanuel was proclaimed King of united Italy.

Answer

Answer: False

18. The most celebrated of Italian freedom fighters is Giuseppe Garibaldi.

Answer

Answer: True

19. The Scottish Highlanders were allowed to speak their Gaelic language.

Answer

Answer: False

20. Ethnic relates to a common racial, tribal, or cultural origin or background that a community identifies with.

Answer

Answer: True

21. In visual representations, Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for victory.

Answer

Answer: False

22. Marianne images were marked on coins and stamps.

Answer

Answer: True

23. Giuseppe Mazzini was sent to exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria.

Answer

Answer: True

24. The English poet, Lord Byron died of fever in 1825.

Answer

Answer: False

25. Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm were born in the German city of Hanau in 1785 and 1786 respectively.

Answer

Answer: True

26. The 1830s were years of great economic hardships in Europe.

Answer

Answer: True

27. Louise Otto-Peters was a political activist who founded a men’s journal.

Answer

Answer: False

28. Feminist refers to awareness of women’s rights and interests.

Answer

Answer: True

29. Ideology refers to a system of ideas reflecting a particular social and political vision.

Answer

Answer: True

30. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into eight states.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the following

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Nation	1. Tricolour
(b) Plebiscite	2. 1797
(c) Absolutist	3. 1859-1870
(d) French Flag	4. 1866-1871
(e) Napoleon invades Italy	5. 1814-1815
(f) Unification of Italy	6. Right to vote
(g) Unification of Germany	7. 1832
(h) Fall of Napoleon	8. Monarchical
(i) Suffrage	9. Direct vote
(j) Treaty of Constantinople	10. State

Answer

Answer:

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Nation	10. State.
(b) Plebiscite	9. Direct vote
(c) Absolutist	8. Monarchical
(d) French Flag	1. Tricolour
(e) Napoleon invades Italy	2. 1797
(f) Unification of Italy	3. 1859-1870
(g) Unification of Germany	4. 1866-1871
(h) Fall of Napoleon	5. 1814-1815
(i) Suffrage	6. Right to vote
(j) Treaty of Constantinople	7. 1832

Column-A	Column-B
1. Conservatism	(a) A common racial or background a community identifies.
2. Feminist	(b) An abstract idea expressed through a person or thing.
3. Ideology	(c) Awareness of women’s rights
4. Ethnic	(d) System of ideas reflecting a particular social and political vision
5. Allegory	(e) A political philosophy
6. Broken chains	(f) Readiness to fight
7. Sword	(g) Heroism
8. Crown of oak leaves	(h) Beginning of a new era
9. Rays of the rising sun	(i) Willingness to make peace
10. Olive branch around the sword	(j) Being freed

Answer

Answer:

Column-A	Column-B
1. Conservatism	(e) A political philosophy
2. Feminist	(c) Awareness of women’s rights
3. Ideology	(d) System of ideas reflecting a particular social and political vision.
4. Ethnic	(a) A common racial or background a community identifies.
5. Allegory	(b) An abstract idea expressed through a person or thing.
6. Broken chains	(j) Being freed
7. Sword	(f) Readiness to fight
8. Crown of oak leaves	(g) Heroism
9. Rays of the rising sun	(h) Beginning of a new era
10. Olive branch around the sword	(i) Willingness to make peace

Column-I	Column-II	Column-III
1. Napoleon invades Italy	(a) an independent nation	(A) 1832
2. Fall of Napoleon	(b) Napoleon	(B) 1815
3. Greek struggle	(c) of Italy	(C) 1797
4. Unification	(d) of Germany	(D) 1814-1815
5. Unification	(e) for independence	(E) 1866-1871
6. Defeat of	(f) the Vienna Peace	(F) 1859-1870
7. Treaty of Constantinople recognised Greece as	(g) Napoleonic wars	(G) 1821

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II	Column-III
1. Napoleon invades Italy	(g) Napoleonic wars	(C) 1797
2. Fall of Napoleon	(f) the Vienna Peace	(D) 1814-1815
3. Greek struggle	(e) for independence	(G) 1821
4. Unification	(d) of Germany	(E) 1866-1871
5. Unification	(c) of Italy	(F) 1859-1870
6. Defeat of	(b) Napoleon	(B) 1815
7. Treaty of Constantinople recognised Greece as	(a) an independent nation	(A) 1832

Fill in the blanks

1. The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the ……………….. which began in 1821. (Romans/Greeks)

Answer

Answer: Greeks

2. The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised ……………………. as an independent nation. (France/Greece)

Answer

Answer: Greece

3. The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in ……………………….. (Russia/Europe)

Answer

Answer: Europe

4. On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in a festive procession to take their places in the Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church of ……………………. (St. Paul/St.Thomas)

Answer

Answer: St. Paul

5. The Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the ……………………… in 1867. (Greeks/Hungarians)

Answer

Answer: Hungarians

6. ………………….. was a country deeply divided between Catholics and Protestants. (Prussia/Ireland)

Answer

Answer: Prussia

7. In 1867, ………………… led an army of volunteers to Rome to fight the last obstacle to the unification of Italy. (Garibaldi/Napoleon)

Answer

Answer: Garibaldi

8. In history, absolutist refers to a form of ………………………….. government. (Monarchical/Democratic)

Answer

Answer: Monarchical

9. Plebiscite refers to ………………………. vote by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal. (Direct/Indirect)

Answer

Answer: Direct

10. The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in …………………….. (1789/1779)

Answer

Answer: 1789

11. The Civil Code of 1804 is also known as the ………………………. Code. (Napoleonic/Mazzinic)

Answer

Answer: Napoleonic

12. Suffrage refers to the right to ……………………. (Freedom/Vote)

Answer

Answer: Vote

13. Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, …………………… governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. (African/European)

Answer

Answer: European

14. Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were ……………………….. (Autocratic/Democratic)

Answer

Answer: Democratic

15. The Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was born in ……………………., in 1807. (Bonn/Genoa)

Answer

Answer: Genoa

Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Class 10 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 SST History with Answers

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Hindi Vasant Bhag, Durva, Sanshipt Budhcharit, Bharat Ki Khoj

March 6, 2022September 22, 2021 by Pooja

Do you need NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Hindi? If so, we can help. You will find Chapterwise Class 8 NCERT Solutions to quickly answer your queries on the topics of concern in this article. All these solutions 8th Class NCERT Solutions for Hindi Vasant Bhag are aligned as per CBSE Guidelines and Exam Trends, which ensures that they’re up-to-date with all new changes!

The NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Vasant & Durva Bhag 3 are available to download in PDF Format. Candidates of the 2021-22 Academic Session can get these free, and since it is difficult to prepare and understand all concepts on one go, we have covered our entire CBSE Class 8 Hindi syllabus so you may learn what you need with homework help or final exams prep!

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sanchayan with Answers

October 12, 2021September 22, 2021 by Pooja

Give yourself a jump start in learning NCERT Syllabus for Class 10 Hindi Sanchayan. This post contains Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sanchayan with Answers Bhag 2 to all important and difficult questions that appear in the year’s examination, making it easier than ever before! Check out CBSE Class 10 Hindi संचयन MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers today if you want greater knowledge when taking your exams later this year at home or abroad.

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

October 11, 2021September 22, 2021 by Pooja

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Class 10 Science Physics, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in Class 10 Physics and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Question 1.
Assertion: Steel core is used as an electromagnet.
Reason: Steel gets permanently magnetised when the current flows through the coil wound around.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(d) A is false but R is true.

Question 2.
Magnetic lines of force inside current carrying solenoid are
(a) perpendicular to axis.
(b) along the axis and are parallel to each other.
(c) parallel inside the solenoid and circular at the ends.
(d) circular.

Answer

Question 3.
What should be the core of an electromagnet?
(a) soft iron
(b) hard iron
(c) rusted iron
(d) none of above

Answer

(a) soft iron

Question 4.
Who has stated the Right hand Thumb Rule?
(a) Orsted
(b) Fleming
(c) Einstein
(d) Maxwell

Answer

(d) Maxwell

Question 5.
The device used for producing electric current is called
(a) generator
(b) galvanometer
(c) ammeter
(d) motor

Answer

(a) generator

Question 6.
To convert an AC generator into DC generator
(a) split-ring type commutator must be used
(b) slip rings and brushes must be used
(c) a stronger magnetic field has to be used
(d) a rectangular wire loop has to be used

Answer

(a) split-ring type commutator must be used

Question 7.
The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short circuiting or overloading is
(a) earthing
(b) use of fuse
(c) use of stabilizers
(d) use of electric meter

Answer

(b) use of fuse

Question 8.
A positively-charged particle (alpha-particle) projected towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is:
(a) towards south
(b)towards east
(c) downward
(d) upward

Answer

(d) the direction of magnetic field is vertically upward.

Question 9.
If the current values periodically from zero to a maximum value, back to zero and then reverses its direction, the current is
(a) direct
(b) alternative
(c) pulsating
(d) none of the above

Answer

(b) alternative

Question 10.
We can induce the current in a coil by
(a) moving the coil in a magnetic field
(b) by changing the magnetic field around it
(c) by changing the orientation of the coil in the magnetic field
(d) All of above

Answer

(a) moving the coil in a magnetic field

Question 11.
Forces acting on a stationery charge of in the magnetic field B is
(a) BQ v
(b) BQ/v
(c) Bv/Q
(d) zero

Answer

(d) zero

Question 12.
A current through a horizontal power line flows from south to North direction. The direction of magnetic field line 0.5m above it is
(a) North
(b) South
(c) West
(d) East

Answer

(a) North

Question 13.
A D.C generator works on the principle of
(a) ohnis law
(b) Joule’s law of heating
(c) faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
(d) none of the above

Answer

Question 14.
A soft iron bar is introduced inside the current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid
(a) will decrease
(b) will remains same
(c) will increase
(d) will become zero

Answer

Question 15.
In the domestic electric circuits, the red coloured insulated copper wire is called
(a) Neutral wire
(b) Fuse wire
(c) Live wire
(d) Earthing wire

Answer

Question 16.
When current is parallel to magnetic field, then force experience by the current carrying conductor placed in uniform magnetic field is
(a) Twice to that when angle is 60°
(b) Thrice to that when angle is 60°
(c) zero
(d) infinite

Answer

(a) Twice to that when angle is 60°

Question 17.
The factors on which one magnetic field strength produced by current carrying solenoids depends are
(a) Magnitude of current
(b) Number of turns
(c) Nature of core material
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

Question 18.
In electric motor, to make the coil rotating continuously in the same direction, current is reversed in the coil after every half rotation by a device called
(a) carbon brush
(b) commutator
(c) slip ring
(d) armature

Answer

(b) commutator

Question 19.
A positively charged particle say an alpha particle projected towards west is deflected toward north by a magnetic field. The direction of the magnetic field is
(a) Upward
(b) downward
(c) towards south
(d) towards east.

Answer

(d) towards east.

Question 20.
The instrument that use to defect electric current in the circuit is known as
(a) electric motor
(b) A.C generator
(c) galvanometer
(d) none of the above

Answer

(a) electric motor

Question 21.
A positive charge is moving upwards in a magnetic field directed towards north. The particle will be deflected towards
(a) west
(b) north
(c) south
(d) east

Answer

(a) west

Question 22.
At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit
(a) vary continuously
(b) reduced considerably
(c) increases heavily
(d) does not change

Answer

Question 23.
The magnetic field near a long straight wire is described by
(a) Straight field lines parallel to the wire.
(b) Straight field lines perpendicular to the wire.
(c) Connective circle centered on the wire.
(d) Radial field lines starting from the wire.

Answer

Question 24.
By which instrument, the presence of magnetic field be determined?
(a) Magnetic Needle
(b) Ammeter
(c) Galvanometer
(d) Voltmeter

Answer

(d) Voltmeter

Question 25.
Inside the magnet, the field lines moves
(a) from north to south
(b) from south the north
(c) away from south pole
(d) away from north pole

Answer

(a) from north to south

Question 26.
Assertion: It is fatal to touch a live electric wire as the person gets a severe electric shock. In some cases, electric shock can even kill a person.
Reason: The electric current passes through the body to the earth forming a circuit and bums the blood.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 27.
Assertion: Strength of an electromagnet depends on the magnitude of current flowing through them.
Reason: Electromagnets are majorly used for lifting heavy weights.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 28.
Which device produces the electric current?
(a) generator
(b) galvanometer
(c) ammeter
(d) motor

Answer

(a) generator

Question 29.
The essential difference between A.C. generator and a D.C. generator is that
(a) A.C. generator has an electromagnet while a D.C. generator has permanent magnet.
(b) D.C. generator will generate a higher voltage
(c) A.C. generator will generate a higher voltage
(d) A.C. generator has slip rings while the D.C. generator has commentator.

Answer

(d) A.C. generator has slip rings while the D.C. generator has commentator.

Question 30.
Commercial electric motors do not use
(a) an electromagnet to rotate the armature
(b) effectively large number of turns of conducting wire in the current carrying coil
(c) a permanent magnet to rotate the armature
(d) a soft iron core on which the coil is wound

Answer

Question 31.
Overloading is due to
(a) Insulation of wire is damaged
(b) fault in the appliances
(c) accidental hike in supply voltage
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

Question 32.
Which one of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire?
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire
(d) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire

Answer

(d) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.

Question 33.
The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is
(a) more at the ends than at the centre
(b) minimum in the middle
(c) same at all points
(d) found to increase from one end to the other

Answer

Question 34.
The main advantage of A.C power transmission over D.C power transmission over’ long distance is
(a) AC transmit without much loss of energy
(b) less insulation problem
(c) less problem of instability
(d) easy transformation.

Answer

(a) AC transmit without much loss of energy

Question 35.
The rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of induced current change once in each
(a) one revolution
(b) one fourth revolution
(c) half revolution
(d) two revolutions

Answer

(b) one fourth revolution

Question 36.
The condition for the praenomen of electromagnetic induction is that there must be a relative motion between
(a) the galvanometer and magnet
(b) the coil of wire and galvanometer
(c) the coil of wire and magnet
(d) the magnet and galvanometer

Answer

Question 37.
Direction of rotation of a coil in electric motor is determined by
(a) fleming’s right hand rule
(b) fleming’s left hand rule
(c) faraday law of electromagnetic inductors
(d) None of above

Answer

(b) fleming’s left hand rule

Question 38.
Which of the following statement is not correct about the magnetic field?
(a) Magnetic field lines form a continuous closed curve.
(b) Magnetic field line do not interest each other.
(c) Direction of tangent at any point on the magnetic field line curve gives the direction of magnetic field at that point.
(d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field lines go from South to North pole of the magnet.

Answer

(d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field lines go from South to North pole of the magnet.

Question 39.
A.C generator works on the principle of
(a) force experience by a conductor in magnetic field
(b) electromagnetic induction
(c) electrostatic

Answer

(d) force experience by a charge particle in electric field.

Question 40.
The most important safety device method used for protecting electrical appliances from short circuiting or overloading is
(a) Earthing
(b) use of stabilizer
(c) use of electric meter
(d) fuse

Answer

(d) fuse

Question 41.
Small current in a circuit is detected by
(a) Galvanometer
(b) Solenoid
(c) Voltmeter
(d) Fleming’s left hand rule

Answer

(a) Galvanometer

Question 42.
Potential difference between a live wire and a neutral wire is
(a) 200 volt
(b) 150 volt
(c) 210 volt
(d) 220 volt

Answer

(d) 220 volt

Question 43.
Which of the following factors affect the strength of force experience by a current carrying conduct in a uniform magnetic field?
(a) magnetic field strength
(b) magnitude of current in a conductor
(c) length of the conductor within magnetic field
(d) All of above

Answer

(d) All of above

Question 44.
Electric motor converts
(a) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
(b) Mechanical energy into heat energy
(c) Electrical energy into heat energy
(d) Electrical energy into mechanical energy

Answer

(d) Electrical energy into mechanical energy

Question 45.
Fleming’s left hand and Right hand rules are used in
(а) Generator and electric motor
(b) Electric motor and generator
(c) any rule can be used for any device
(d) both are not applied for generator and motor.

Answer

(b) Electric motor and generator

Question 46.
A current carrying conductor placed in magnetic field experiences a force. The displacement of the conductor in magnetic field can be increased by
(a)Decreasing the magnetic field.
(b) Decreasing the current in the conductor.
(c) Increasing the magnetic field.
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Question 47.
Which of the following properties of a proton can change when it moves freely in a magnetic field
(a) mass
(b) speed
(c) velocity
(d) momentum

Answer

Question 48.
The pattern of the magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conducting wire is
(a) in the direction opposite to the current
(b) in the direction parallel to the wire
(c) circular around the wire
(d) in the same direction of current

Answer

(a) in the direction opposite to the current

Question 49.
The nature of magnetic field line passing through the centre of current carrying circular loop is
(a) circular
(b) ellipse
(c) parabolic
(d) straight line

Answer

(d) straight line

Question 50.
Magnetic Effect of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Magnetic effect of current was discovered by
(a) Oersted
(b) Faraday
(c) Bohr
(d) Ampere

Answer

(a) Oersted

Question 51.
A device for producing electric current is called a
(a) Galvanometer
(b) Motor
(c) Generator
(d)Ammeter

Answer

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Physics MCQs Questions for Class 10 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Physics with Answers PDF Download Chapter Wise

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Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Physics MCQ