MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Social Science, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 8 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible! So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 3 Geography Objective Questions.

Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving MCQ on Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 with Answers can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These Class 8 SST Geography Chapter 3 MCQ with Answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
A naturally occuring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a
(a) ore
(b) rock
(c) mineral
(d) copper

Answer

Answer: (c) mineral


Question 2.
Rock from which mineral are mined are known as
(a) metallic mineral
(b) limestone
(c) mineral
(d) ore

Answer

Answer: (d) ore


Question 3.
Deep wells bored to take the petroleum and natural gas out is called
(a) quarrying
(b) drilling
(c) mining
(d) shaft mining

Answer

Answer: (b) drilling


Question 4.
Which among the following is the leading producer of iron-ore in the world?
(a) Europe
(b) Asia
(c) Antarctica
(d) North America

Answer

Answer: (a) Europe


Question 5.
Which is the rarest diamond on this earth?
(a) Black diamond
(b) Blue diamond
(c) Red diamond
(d) Green diamond

Answer

Answer: (d) Green diamond


Question 6.
What are the ways to conserve minerals is?
(a) Recycling of minerals
(b) Reducing waste in the process of mining
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
One of the ways to conserve minerals is recycling of minerals and reducing waste in the process of mining.


Question 7.
What is the appropriate source of energy for coastal area?
(a) Tidal energy
(b) Solar energy
(c) Biogas
(d) Wind energy

Answer

Answer: (a) Tidal energy
Energy generated from tides is called tidal energy. Tidal energy can be harnessed by building dams at narrow openings of the sea.


Question 8.
What is the name of the mineral that is extracted from Bauxite?
(a) Silver
(b) Manganese
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper

Answer

Answer: (c) Aluminium
Aluminium is the name of the mineral that is extracted from Bauxite.


Question 9.
Which one of the following is a leading producer of copper in the world?
(a) Bolivia
(b) Ghana
(c) Chile
(d) Zimbabwe

Answer

Answer: (c) Chile
Chile and Peru are leading producers of copper. In India it is mainly produced in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.


Question 10.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of minerals?
(a) They are created by natural processes.
(b) They have a definite chemical composition.
(c) They are inexhaustible.
(d) Their distribution is uneven.

Answer

Answer: (c) They are inexhaustible.
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral. They are created by natural processes. They have a definite chemical composition. Minerals are not evenly distributed over space.


Question 11.
What are the major types of power resources?
(a) Conventional resources
(b) Non-conventional resources
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Major Types of power resources are: (i) Conventional resources (ii) Non-conventional resources.


Question 12.
What is ‘Black gold’?
(a) Coal
(b) Mica
(c) Petrol
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Coal
Coal is known as the black gold due to its black appearance and great value as a fuel in industries and domestic purpose.


Question 13.
What are the fossil fuels?
(a) Fuels used for domestic purpose
(b) Fuel found in highly area
(c) Created by buried organism
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Created by buried organism
Fossil fuels are created due to the submergence of buried dead organisms in the earth for a long period of time. Fossil fuel such as coal, petroleum and natural gas are the main sources of conventional energy.


Question 14.
What do you mean by conventional power resources?
(a) Resource in use for a long period of time
(b) Extensively used by the common people
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Conventional power resources are those that are in use for a long period of time and are extensively used by the common people. Firewood and fossil fuels are the two main conventional energy sources.


Question 15.
What are minerals?
(a) Found freely in the nature
(b) Have own chemical composition
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Minerals are those substances that are found freely in the nature and have their own chemical composition.


Write true (T) or false (F)

1. Wind energy is an exhaustible energy.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atom.

Answer

Answer: True


3. The increasing use of fossil fuels is leading to its shortage.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Coal is the lessest abundantly found fossil fuels.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Firewood and fossil fuels are the two main non-conventional sources of energy.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the following

1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Petroleum (a) Burned Sunshine
2. Coal (b) Main sources of conventional energy
3. Fire wood and fossil fuels (c) Rarest diamond
4. Minerals containing iron (d) Black gold
5. Green Diamond (e) Ferrous
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Petroleum (d) Black gold
2. Coal (a) Burned Sunshine
3. Fire wood and fossil fuels (b) Main sources of conventional energy
4. Minerals containing iron (e) Ferrous
5. Green Diamond (c) Rarest diamond

Fill in the blanks

1. Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer, this is known as ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: open cast mining


2. The mineral deposits in North America are located in ……………………… zones.

Answer

Answer: three


3. ……………………… is the largest producer of high grade iron-ore in the worl(d)

Answer

Answer: Brazil


4. Minerals are a ……………………… resources.

Answer

Answer: non-renewable


5. Petrol and its derivatives are called ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Black gold


6. Heat obtained from the earth is called ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: geothermal energy


Picture Based Questions

1.
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 3
1. What is shown in the figure?
2. Define drilling.

Answer

Answer:
1. This picture shows shore drilling of oil.
2. Deep wells bored to take petroleum and natural gas out is called drilling.


Map Skills

1. On an outline Map of the World mark the following:
(i) Countries of Asia with large iron deposits.
(ii) The countries in Europe that are leading producer of iron-ore in the world

Answer

Answer:
(i) China and India
(ii) Russia, Sweden, Ukraine, France.
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 3


2.
On an outline Map of India mark the following.
(i) Iron distribution in the states of India
(ii) Major Bauxite producing states.

Answer

Answer:
(i) Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka
(ii) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhatisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 3


Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources with Answers Pdf free download useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Social Science Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 6 Towns, Traders and Craftspersons with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Social Science, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 6 Towns, Traders and Craftspersons with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 7 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

Towns, Traders and Craftspersons Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Class 7 MCQ on Towns, Traders and Craftspersons Class 7 with Answers can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These Class 7 History Chapter 6 MCQ with Answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
When did Murshidabad became the capital of Bengal?
(a) In 1703
(b) In 1704
(c) In 1709

Answer

Answer: (b) In 1704


Question 2.
Which town been called the gate to Mecca?
(a) Surat
(b) Somnath
(c) Bombay

Answer

Answer: (a) Surat


Question 3.
………….. contain copper and tin.
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze

Answer

Answer: (c) Bronze


Question 4.
What did the Indian traders bring from Africa?
(a) Gold and ivory
(b) Spices
(c) Cloths

Answer

Answer: (a) Gold and ivory


Question 5.
Vasco da Gama was a resident of:
(a) Portugal
(b) Spain
(c) Italy

Answer

Answer: (a) Portugal


Question 6.
Who was mulla Abdul Ghafur?
(a) Trader
(b) Farmer
(c) Samant

Answer

Answer: (a) Trader


Question 7.
Who had huge banking houses at Surat?
(a) Surat seths
(b) Kathiawad seths
(c) Aggarwals

Answer

Answer: (b) Kathiawad seths


Question 8.
When did Hampi fall into ruin?
(a) 1555
(b) 1560
(c) 1565

Answer

Answer: (c) 1565


Question 9.
Which cities were gateways for trade?
(a) Khambat, Ahmedabad and Surat
(b) Gandhinagar, Ahmedabad and Surat
(c) Surat, Ahmedabad, Kachh

Answer

Answer: (a) Khambat, Ahmedabad and Surat


Question 10.
‘Bidar’ is:
(a) Art on baked earth
(b) Art on cloth
(c) Inlay art on Metal

Answer

Answer: (c) Inlay art on Metal


Question 11.
How was water supplied to the city of Thanjavur?
(a) Wells
(b) Tanks
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Water supply for the city of Thanjavur came from wells and tanks.


Question 12.
The fort at Masulipatnam was built by whom?
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) French
(d) Portuguese

Answer

Answer: (a) Dutch
The fort at Masulipatnam was built by the Dutch. The town of Masulipatnam or Machlipatnam (literally, fish port town) lay on the delta of the Krishna river.


Question 13.
Kabul and Qandahar were linked to which route?
(a) Silk Route
(b) Cape Route
(c) Suez Canal Route
(d) Cotton Route

Answer

Answer: (a) Silk Route
Kabul and Qandahar were linked to the celebrated Silk Route. Besides, trade in horses was primarily carried on through this route.


Question 14.
Hampi was the capital of which empire?
(a) Mughal
(b) Vijayanagara
(c) Mewar
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Vijayanagara
Hampi is located in the Krishna-Tungabhadra basin that formed the nucleus of the Vijayanagara Empire, founded in 1336.


Question 15.
Which of the following is an example of a temple town?
(a) Ajmer
(b) Thanjavur
(c) Berar
(d) Delhi

Answer

Answer: (b) Thanjavur
Thanjavur is also an example of a temple town. Temple towns represent a very important pattern of urbanisation, the process by which cities develop.


Question 16.
Who among the following were linked to silk route?
(a) Kabul
(b) Qandahar
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Kabul and Qandahar were linked to the celebrated Silk Route. Besides, trade in horses was primarily carried on through this route.


Question 17.
What was the capital of Vijayanagara?
(a) Mughal
(b) Hampi
(c) Mewar
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Hampi
Hampi is located in the Krishna-Tungabhadra basin that formed the nucleus of the Vijayanagara Empire, founded in 1336.


Question 18.
Who lived in the ‘Black towns’ in cities such as Madras?
(a) Weavers
(b) Native traders
(c) Crafts person
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Weavers
Merchants, artisans such as, weavers, and native traders and craft persons lived in the ‘Black town’.


Question 19.
Mention some articles of trades on which temple authorities collected taxes?
(a) Sugar
(b) Dyes
(c) Cotton
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
The temple authorities collected taxes on Sugar and jaggery, dyes, thread and cotton, coconut, salt, areca nuts, butter, sesame oil and cloth.


Question 20.
Why was Surat so famous?
(a) For their gold lace borders
(b) For temples
(c) For buildings
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) For their gold lace borders
Surat was the gateway for trade with West Asia via the Gulf of Ormuz. It has also been called the gateway to Mecca because many pilgrim ships set sail from here. The textile of Surat were famous for their gold lace borders.


Match the following

1.

Column I Column II
1. Emporium of Western Trade (a) Krishna-Tungabhadra basin
2. Masulipatnam (b) Surat
3. Hampi (c) Tamil Nadu
4. Kanchipuram (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Emporium of Western Trade (b) Surat
2. Masulipatnam (d) Andhra Pradesh
3. Hampi (a) Krishna-Tungabhadra basin
4. Kanchipuram (c) Tamil Nadu

2.

Column I Column II
1. Bhillasvamin (a) Uttar Pradesh
2. Somnath (b) Tamil Nadu
3. Tirupati (c) Gujarat
4. Vrindavan (d) Madhya Pradesh
5. Tiruvannamalai (e) Andhra Pradesh
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Bhillasvamin (d) Madhya Pradesh
2. Somnath (c) Gujarat
3. Tirupati (e) Andhra Pradesh
4. Vrindavan (a) Uttar Pradesh
5. Tiruvannamalai (b) Tamil Nadu

Fill in the blanks

1. Coarse cotton was for the ……………. .

Answer

Answer: masses


2. Thanjavur is also an example of a ……………. .

Answer

Answer: temple town


3. Inlay work on metal of ‘Bidar’ crafts persons is called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Bidri


4. Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti, who is famous Sufi Saint of ……………. century.

Answer

Answer: 12th


5. Surat (Gujarat) was the emporium of western trade during the ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Mughal period


6. In the Surat city there was people of all ……………. and ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Castes, creeds


7. The Panchalas community was also known as ……………. community.

Answer

Answer: Vishwakarma


8. Saliyar or Kaikkolars were the ……………. community.

Answer

Answer: Weavers


9. Pilgrims also made donations to the ……………. .

Answer

Answer: temples


10. The English, Dutch and French formed East India Companies in order to expand their activities in the east.

Answer

Answer: Commercial


Map Skills

1. Indicate the following places in the map:
(i) Masulipatnam (ii) Hampi (iii) Surat (iv) Bidar (v) Thanjavur (vi) Kanchipuram

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 6


Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 6 Towns, Traders and Craftspersons with Answers Pdf free download useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 7 Social Science Towns, Traders and Craftspersons Class 7 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Science studies, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 7 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Nutrition in Animals Multiple Choice Questions of Class 7 Science Chapter 2 MCQ can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Nutrition in Animals Class 7 with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a part of digestive system ?
(a) Mouth cavity
(b) Stomach
(c) Food pipe
(d) Wind pipe

Answer

(d) Wind pipe
Wind pipe is not a part of digestive system.


Question 2.
The largest gland in our body is:
(a) Liver
(b) Salivary gland
(c) Pancreas
(d) Gallbladder

Answer

(a) Liver
The largest gland in our body is liver.


Question 3.
The acid secreted in the stomach is:
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Phosphoric acid
(d) Nitric acid

Answer

(a) Hydrochloric acid
The acid secreted in our stomach is hydrochloric acid.


Question 4.
The components of food absorbed in large intestine is:
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Protein
(c) Water
(d) Fats

Answer

(c) Water
The component of food absorbed in large intestine is water.


Question 5.
Bile is produced by:
(a) Small intestine
(b) Gallbladder
(c) Liver
(d) Pancreas

Answer

(d) Pancreas
Bile is produced by pancreas.


Question 6.
Bile plays an important role in the digestion of:
(a) Proteins
(b) Starch
(c) Fats
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Fats
Bile plays an important role in the digestion of fats.


Question 7.
The intestinal juice digests the fats into:
(a) Fatty acids
(b) Glycerol
(c) Fatty acid and glycerol
(d) Amino acids

Answer

(c) Fatty acid and glycerol
The intestinal juice digests the fats into fatty acid and glycerol.


Question 8.
The intestinal juice digests the proteins into:
(a) Fatty acids
(b) Glycerol
(c) Amino acids
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Amino acids
The intestinal juice digests the proteins into amino acids.


Question 9.
The removing of faecal matter through the anus is called:
(a) Digestion
(b) Absorption
(c) Egestion
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Egestion
The removing of faecal matter through the anus is called egestion.


Question 10.
Humans can digest cellulose:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Can’t say
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) No
Humans cannot digest cellulose.


Question 11.
Saliva breaks down the:
(a) Starch into amino acids
(b) Proteins into amino acids
(c) Starch into sugar
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Starch into sugar
Saliva breaks down the starch into sugar.


Question 12.
Left over food in teeth release, which gradually damages teeth.
(a) bases
(b) salts
(c) acids
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) acids
Left over food in teeth release acids which gradually damages teeth.


Question 13.
The front part of tongue is sensitive to which of the following taste ?
(a) Sweet
(b) Sour
(c) Salty
(d) Bitter

Answer

(a) Sweet
The front part of tongue is sensitive to sweet taste.


Question 14.
The digestion of starch starts in:
(a) Mouth
(b) Stomach
(c) Small intestine
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Mouth
The digestion of starch starts in mouth.


Question 15.
The part of digestive system where no digestion takes place is:
(a) Mouth
(b) Stomach
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Small intestine

Answer

(c) Oesophagus
Oesophagus is a part of digestive system where no digestion takes place.


Question 16.
The digestion of food starts in which part of the digestive system:
(a) Small intestine
(b) Stomach
(c) Mouth
(d) Large intestine

Answer

(c) Mouth
The digestion of food starts in mouth.


Question 17.
Which of the following is digested in mouth ?
(a) Sugar
(b) Protein
(c) Starch
(d) All the above

Answer

(c) Starch
Starch is digested in mouth.


Question 18.
The digestion of food ends in which part of the digestive system ?
(a) Mouth
(b) Stomach
(c) Small intestine
(d) Large intestine

Answer

(c) Small intestine
The digestion of food ends in small intestine of the digestive system.


Question 19.
Which teeth in the mouth are used for cutting and tearing ?
(a) Molar
(b) Incisors
(c) Premolar
(d) Canine

Answer

(d) Canine
Canine are used for cutting and tearing.


Question 20.
The end part of tongue is sensitive to which of the following taste ?
(a) Sweet
(b) Sour
(c) Salty
(d) Bitter

Answer

(d) Bitter
The end part of tongue is sensitive to bitter taste.


Question 21.
In amoeba, ingestion of food takes place with the help of:
(a) Tentacles
(b) Pseudopodia
(c) Stomata
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Pseudopodia
In amoeba, ingestion of food takes place with the help of pseudopodia


Question 22.
The undigested food is eliminated through:
(a) Anus
(b) Caecum
(c) Rectum
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Anus
The undigested food is eliminated through anus.


Question 23.
Villi are present in the inner walls of:
(a) Stomach
(b) Small intestine
(c) Large intestine
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Small intestine
Villi are present in the inner walls of small intestine.


Question 24.
Grass eating animals quickly swallow the grass and store it in a part of stomach called:
(a) Gall bladder
(b) Rumen
(c) Lower stomach
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Rumen
Grass eating animals quickly swallow the grass and store it in a part of stomach called rumen.


Question 25.
Grass is rich in:
(a) Proteins
(b) Starch
(c) Cellulose
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Cellulose
Grass is rich in cellulose.


Question 26.
In amoeba, the food particles are trapped in:
(a) Pseudopodia
(b) Food vacuole
(c) Stomach
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Food vacuole
In amoeba, the food particles are trapped in food vacuole.


Question 27.
The gland located just below the stomach is:
(a) Liver
(b) Pancreas
(c) Gall bladder
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Pancreas
Pancreas is the gland located just below the stomach.


Question 28.
Number of canines present in an adult are:
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 16

Answer

(a) 4
Number of canines present in an adult are 4.


Question 29.
The teeth which helps in biting the food are the:
(a) Canines
(b) Incisors
(c) Premolar
(d) Molars

Answer

(b) Incisors
The teeth which helps in biting in food are the incisors.


Match Column A with Column B:

Question 1.

Column A Column B
(a) Salivary gland (i) Bile juice secretion
(b) Stomach (ii) Storage of undigested food
(c) Liver (iii) Saliva secretion
(d) Rectum (iv) Acid release
(e) Small intestine (v) Digestion is completed
(f) Large intestine (vi) Absorption of water
Answer
Column A Column B
(a) Salivary gland (iii) Saliva secretion
(b) Stomach (iv) Acid release
(c) Liver (i) Bile juice secretion
(d) Rectum (ii) Storage of undigested food
(e) Small intestine (v) Digestion is completed
(f) Large intestine (vi) Absorption of water

Question 2.

Column A Column B
(a) Absorption of food (i) Mucous
(b) Chewing of food (ii) Stomach
(c) Killing of bacteria (iii) Buccal cavity
(d) Formation of faeces (iv) Small intestine
(e) Protects lining of the stomach (v) Large intestine
Answer
Column A Column B
(a) Absorption of food (iv) Small intestine
(b) Chewing of food (iii) Buccal cavity
(c) Killing of bacteria (ii) Stomach
(d) Formation of faeces (v) Large intestine
(e) Protects lining of the stomach (i) Mucous

Question 3.

Column A Column B
(a) Canine (i) biting
(b) Molars (ii) tearing
(c) Incisors (iii) no digestion
(d) Oesophagus (iv) chewing
Answer
Column A Column B
(a) Canine (ii) tearing
(b) Molars (iv) chewing
(c) Incisors (i) biting
(d) Oesophagus (iii) no digestion

State whether the following statements are ‘True’ or ‘False’:

Question 1.
Digestion of starch starts in the stomach.

Answer

False


Question 2.
The tongue helps in mixing food with saliva.

Answer

True


Question 3.
The gall bladder temporarily stores bile.

Answer

True


Question 4.
The ruminants bring back swallowed grass into their mouth and chew it for some time.

Answer

True


Question 5.
Bile acts on fat present in food.

Answer

True


Question 6.
Digestion is the process by which digested food is absorbed.

Answer

False


Question 7.
An adult has 22 permanent teeth.

Answer

False


Question 8.
Gastric juice is secreted by the small intestine.

Answer

False


Question 9.
In our body, the food is digested and absorbed in the alimentary canal.

Answer

True


Question 10.
Chewing of the cud is shown by ruminants.

Answer

True


Question 11.
Villi are finger-like out-growths in the inner walls of stomach.

Answer

False


Question 12.
Cud is the partially digested food in grass eating animals.

Answer

True


Question 13.
Grass is rich in cellulose.

Answer

True


Question 14.
The process of taking food into the body is called egestion.

Answer

False


Question 15.
Saliva breaks down the starch into sugars.

Answer

True


Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The main steps of nutrition in humans are ……………………. , ……………………. , ……………………. , ……………………. and …………………….

Answer

ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion


Question 2.
The largest gland in the human body is ……………………..

Answer

liver


Question 3.
The stomach releases hydrochloric acid and ……………………. juices which acts on food.

Answer

gastric


Question 4.
The inner wall of the small intestine has many finger-like outgrowths called …………………….

Answer

villi


Question 5.
Amoeba digests its food in the ……………………..

Answer

food vacuole


Question 6.
Iodine will turn starch …………………….

Answer

blue-black


Question 7.
Fats are broken down into ……………………. and ……………………..

Answer

fatty acids, glycerol


Question 8.
Finger-like projections of Amoeba are called ……………………..

Answer

villi


Question 9.
……………………. is a leaf-like gland present below the stomach.

Answer

Pancreas


Question 10.
Undigested food is egested out of the body through the ……………………..

Answer

anus


Question 11.
Saliva is secreted by ……………………..

Answer

salivary glands


Question 12.
Food is digested by special chemicals called ……………………..

Answer

digestive enzymes


Question 13.
Digestion starts in ……………………..

Answer

mouth


Question 14.
The longest part of the digestive tract in man is the ……………………. intestine.

Answer

small


Question 15.
The food is ingested inside the ……………………. in amoeba.

Answer

food vacuole


Question 16.
The liver and ……………………. are found near the stomach.

Answer

pancreas


Question 17.
……………………. and ……………………. are called grinding teeth.

Answer

Molar, premolars


Question 18.
The food in amoeba is captured by ……………………..

Answer

pseudopodia


Question 19.
The digestion of food does not occur in ……………………. of digestive tract.

Answer

oesophagus


Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals with Answers Pdf free download useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 7 Science Nutrition in Animals MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 5 Rulers and Buildings with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Social Science, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 5 Rulers and Buildings with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 7 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

Rulers and Buildings Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Class 7 Exams can download MCQ on Rulers and Buildings Class 7 with Answers can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These Class 7 History Chapter 5 MCQ with Answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Humayun’s tomb was built:
(a) Between 1571 and 1671
(b) Between 1545 and 1556
(c) Between 1562 and 1571

Answer

Answer: (c) Between 1562 and 1571


Question 2.
Kandariya Mahadeva temple built in:
(a) 1000
(b) 999
(c) 1099

Answer

Answer: (b) 999


Question 3.
Qutb Minar has:
(a) 2 storeys
(b) 5 storeys
(c) 7 storeys

Answer

Answer: (b) 5 storeys


Question 4.
The Kandariya Mahadeva temple dedicated to:
(a) Ganesh
(b) Shiva
(c) Ram

Answer

Answer: (b) Shiva


Question 5.
World famous Taj Mahal was built by:
(a) Shah Jahan
(b) Akbar
(c) Babur

Answer

Answer: (a) Shah Jahan


Question 6.
The Rajarajeshvara temple located in:
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Agra

Answer

Answer: (a) Thanjavur


Question 7.
Akbar’s architects were inspired from:
(a) Babur
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Taimur

Answer

Answer: (c) Taimur


Question 8.
Chahar Bagh was not constructed in:
(a) Kashmir
(b) Jaipur and Lucknow
(c) Agra and Delhi

Answer

Answer: (b) Jaipur and Lucknow


Question 9.
Which one was not built by Shah Jahan?
(a) Taj Mahal and Moti Masjid in Agra
(b) Red Fort and Jama Masjid in Delhi
(c) Qutb Minar

Answer

Answer: (c) Qutb Minar


Question 10.
Qutb Minar built by Iltutmish in the year:
(a) 1229
(b) 1250
(c) 1300

Answer

Answer: (a) 1229


Question 11.
How did kings win the praise at their subjects?
(a) By making structure for their use.
(b) By distributing wealth
(c) By distributing grains and foods
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) By making structure for their use.
They won the praise of their subjects by making structures for their use and comfort such as temples, mosques, tanks, wells, caravanserais and bazaars.


Question 12.
Who had constructed Hauz-i Sultani?
(a) Sultan Iltutmish
(b) Raziyya
(c) Qutubuddin Aybak
(d) Ghiyasuddin Balban

Answer

Answer: (a) Sultan Iltutmish
Sultan Iltutmish won universal respect for constructing a large reservoir just outside Dehli-i-Kuhn(a) It was called the Hauz-i-Sultani or the King’s Reservoir.


Question 13.
The Agra fort was built by whom?
(a) Shah Jahan
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Babar

Answer

Answer: (b) Akbar
The Agra fort was built by Akbar, the Agra Fort required 2,000 stone-cutters, 2,000 cement and lime-makers and 8,000 labourers.


Question 14.
Why were the baolis constructed?
(a) To provide a place for bathing for royals
(b) To fulfil the water demands
(c) For rain water harvesting
(d) For entertainment of royals.

Answer

Answer: (c) For rain water harvesting
The baolis were constructed for rain water harvesting, they were large stepped-wells attached to buildings.


Question 15.
The Qutub Minar was constructed by whom?
(a) Shah Jahan
(b) Jahangir
(c) Humayun
(d) Qutbuddin Aybak

Answer

Answer: (d) Qutbuddin Aybak
Qutb Minar was constructed by Qutbuddin Aybak he had this constructed around 1199.


Question 16.
What were the elements of Mughal `Chahar bagh garden?
(a) It consist of four gardens divided into four quarters by artificial channels
(b) It consist of three gardens divided into four quarters by artificial channels
(c) It consist of ten gardens divided into four quarters by artificial channels
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) It consist of four gardens divided into four quarters by artificial channels
Mughal Chahar baghs consist of four gardens. These gardens are placed within rectangular walled enclosures and divided into four quarters by artificial channels.


Question 17.
What is the special feature of Fatehpur Sikri, Akbar’s capital?
(a) Building show the influence of the architectural style of British.
(b) Building show the influence of the architectural style of Gujarat and malwa.
(c) Building show the influence of the architectural style of Mughal style.
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Building show the influence of the architectural style of Gujarat and malw(a)
In Fatehpur Sikri many of the buildings show the influence of the architectural styles of Gujarat and Malwa.


Question 18.
Which temple was built by Rajarajadeva?
(a) Rajarajeshvara temple
(b) Minakshi temple
(c) Kandariya Mahadev Temple
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Rajarajeshvara temple
Rajarajadeva build Rajarajeshvara temple in Thanjavur.


Question 19.
Who constructed the Kandariya Mahadev Temple?
(a) king Raman
(b) King Dhanush
(c) king Dhangadeva
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) king Dhangadeva
The king Dhangadeva constructed Kandariya Mahadeva temple in 999.


Question 20.
Where was the Rajarajeshvara temple constructed?
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Kota
(c) Delhi
(d) Madras

Answer

Answer: (a) Thanjavur
Rajarajadeva build Rajarajeshvara temple in Thanjavur.


Match the following

1.

Column I Column II
1. Shikhara (a) Delhi
2. The Chahar bagh garden (b) The top most point of the temple
3. Throne balcony in the diwan-i am (c) 1643
4. Taj Mahal (d) River front garden
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Shikhara (b) The top most point of the temple
2. The Chahar bagh garden (d) River front garden
3. Throne balcony in the diwan-i am (a) Delhi
4. Taj Mahal (c) 1643

Fill in the blanks

1. Large stepped-wells were known as ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Baolis


2. ……………. destroyed Somnath temple.

Answer

Answer: Sultan Mahmud


3. The Agra fort was built by ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Akbar


4. The Kandariya Mahadeva temple was constructed by ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Dhangadeva


5. Dhangadeva belongs to ……………. dynasty.

Answer

Answer: Chandela


6. The Rajarajeshvara temple at Thanjavur had the tallest ……………. amongst temples of its time.

Answer

Answer: Shikhara


7. Qutb Minar was constructed in ……………. .

Answer

Answer: 1229


8. Sultan Mahmud destroyed the great temple of ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Somnath


9. Image of chief diety was kept in the ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Garbhgriha


10. ……………. stvle of architecture is reflected by South Indian Temples.

Answer

Answer: Dravidian


Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 5 Rulers and Buildings with Answers Pdf free download useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 7 Social Science Rulers and Buildings Class 7 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Social Science, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 8 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible! So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 2 Geography Objective Questions.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving MCQ on Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 with Answers can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These Class 8 SST Geography Chapter 2 MCQ with Answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Peter belongs to which country?
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Germany
(d) New Zealand

Answer

Answer: (d) New Zealand


Question 2.
About how much in percentage does the total area of land area covered on the earth’s surface?
(a) 30%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%

Answer

Answer: (a) 30%


Question 3.
Use of land for different purpose of development such as agriculture forestry, mining, housing, etc is termed as
(a) Land conservation
(b) Land use
(c) Common property
(d) Soil formation

Answer

Answer: (b) Land use


Question 4.
The mass movement of rock, debris or earth down a slope is simply known as
(a) earthquake
(b) avalanches
(c) landslides
(d) soil erosion

Answer

Answer: (c) landslides


Question 5.
What determines the thickness of the soil profile?
(a) Time
(b) Climate
(c) Relief
(d) Formation

Answer

Answer: (a) Time


Question 6.
What do you mean by Biome?
(a) Group of plants in areas having similar climatic condition.
(b) Land covered with grass shrubs on which animals graze freely
(c) Marginal land kept fallow for a certain period to restore their fertility
(d) Breaking up and decaying of exposed rocks due to various factors.

Answer

Answer: (a) Group of plants in areas having similar climatic condition.
A biome is a community of plants and animals that have common characteristics for the environment they exist in. They can be found over a range of continents.


Question 7.
What do you mean by shelter belts?
(a) Wind movement to protect soil cover
(b) Wind movement to erosion
(c) Belt for trees
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Wind movement to protect soil cover
Shelter belts is the coastal and dry regions, rows of trees are planted to check the wind movement to protect soil cover.


Question 8.
Where is the Kaziranga National Park is situated?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Manipur
(c) Assam
(d) Orissa

Answer

Answer: (c) Assam
Kaziranga National Park is situated in Assam. Spread across the floodplains of the Brahmaputra River, its forests, wetlands and grasslands are home to tigers, elephants and the world’s largest population of Indian one-horned rhinoceroses.


Question 9.
Which one of the following is not in favor of the conservation of nature?
(a) Switch off the bulb when not in use.
(b) Close the tap immediately after using.
(c) Dispose poly packs after shopping
(d) Constructing Rock Dams

Answer

Answer: (c) Dispose poly packs after shopping
Dispose poly packs after shopping is one of the things that are not in the favor of the conservation of nature.


Question 10.
Which one of the following is NOT a factor of soil formation?
(a) Time
(b) Soil texture
(c) Organic matter
(d) Mulching

Answer

Answer: (b) Soil texture
The major factors of soil formation are the nature of the parent rock and climatic factors. Other factors are the topography, role of organic material and time taken for the composition of soil formation.


Question 11.
What is a biosphere reserve?
(a) Protected area linked through global network
(b) Land use for production
(c) Farmers Land
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Protected area linked through global network
Biosphere reserve is a series of protected areas which are linked through a global network. They are intended to demonstrate the relationship between conservation and development.


Question 12.
What do you understand by the term CPR?
(a) Community Property Resources
(b) Common property resources
(c) Common planning resources
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Community Property Resources
CPR means Community Property Resources. They are commonly owned and shared by communities for e.g. a park, a marriage hall, growing area etc.


Question 13.
Where can we find water market in India?
(a) Bareilly
(b) Amreli
(c) Surat
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Amreli
Amreli city in Saurashtra region having population of about 1.25 lakhs that is totally dependent upon purchasing of water.


Question 14.
What is referred as the breaking up and decaying of exposed rocks by the?
(a) Weathering
(b) Formation
(c) Erosion
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Weathering
It refers to the breaking up and decaying of exposed rocks, by changes in temperature, frost action, plants, animals and human activity.


Question 15.
What does ‘land use’ refer to?
(a) Use of land for many purposes
(b) Land for sale
(c) Mortgage Land
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Use of land for many purposes
Land use refers to the use of land for different purposes such as agriculture, mining, construction etc.


Write true (T) or false (F)

1. Silk is obtained from silk worms that are bred on Mulberry trees.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Amreli of Saurastra region has population of 3 lakhs.

Answer

Answer: False


3. A dripping tap wastes 1200 litres of water in a year.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Major factors of soil formation are deforestation and soil erosion.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Land slides are simply defined as the mass movement of rock, debris or earth down a slope.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Soil Formation (a) mulching
2. Weathering (b) Evergreen and Deciduous
3. Method of soil conservation (c) the breaking up and decay of exposed rocks.
4. Forests classification (d) medicinal herb
5. Brahma Kamal (e) nature of parents rock
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Soil Formation (e) nature of parents rock
2. Weathering (c) the breaking up and decay of exposed rocks.
3. Method of soil conservation (a) mulching
4. Forests classification (b) Evergreen and Deciduous
5. Brahma Kamal (d) medicinal herb

Fill in the blanks

1. An international convention ……………………… has been established that lists several species of animals and birds in which trade is ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: CITES, prohibited


2. National parks are the natural area designated to protect the ……………………… integrity.

Answer

Answer: ecological


3. Brahma Kamal is a ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: medicinal Herb


4. In dry regions with high rates of evaporation, drip or ……………………… irrigation is very useful.

Answer

Answer: trickle


5. Amreli city is in ……………………… region.

Answer

Answer: Saurastra


Picture Based Questions

1.
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2
1. What does the picture show.
2. Under which category is Tsunami placed?

Answer

Answer:
1. The picture shows the loss of rainforest in Great Nicobar after Tsunami.
2. Natural factors accelarating the process of extinction of resources.


Map Skills

1. On an outline map of India mark the following:
(i) Kaziranga National Park (ii) Himachal Pradesh (iii) Great Nicobar

Answer

Answer: MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2


2. On an outline Map of the world mark the regions of the world where there is scarcity of water.

Answer

Answer: MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2
(i) Africa (ii) West Asia (iii) South Asia


Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources with Answers Pdf free download useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Social Science Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 4 The Mughal Empire with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Social Science, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 4 The Mughal Empire with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 7 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

The Mughal Empire Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Class 7 Exams can download MCQ on The Mughal Empire Class 7 with Answers can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These Class 7 History Chapter 4 MCQ with Answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
When Babur got throne of Ferghana, he was:
(a) Only 12 years old
(b) Only 14 years old
(c) Only 15 years old
(d) Only 20 years old

Answer

Answer: (a) Only 12 years old


Question 2.
1st war of Panipat fought between:
(a) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodi
(b) Akbar and Ibrahim
(c) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Lodi Sher Khan and Ibrahim Lodi

Answer

Answer: (c) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi


Question 3.
War fought between Baber and Rana Sanga is called:
(a) Panipat war
(b) Khanua war
(c) Chausa war
(d) Kanauj war

Answer

Answer: (b) Khanua war


Question 4.
Who fought Chausa and Kanauj wars against Humayun?
(a) Sher Khan
(b) Mirza Hakim
(c) Bairam Khan
(d) Safavid Shah

Answer

Answer: (a) Sher Khan


Question 5.
The Mughal Emperor who spent his last days in prison, was:
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: (d) Shah Jahan


Question 6.
The mother of Shah Jahan was a:
(a) Rajput Princess
(b) Bijapur Princess
(c) Rathor Princess
(d) Mewar Princess

Answer

Answer: (c) Rathor Princess


Question 7.
Number of mansabdars in Aurangzeb’s reign was:
(a) 75
(b) 79
(c) 85
(d) 90

Answer

Answer: (b) 79


Question 8.
Who wrote ‘Akbar Nama’?
(a) Abul Fazal
(b) Abul Faizi
(c) Todar Mai
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) Abul Fazal


Question 9.
Interesting aspect about the Ain-i-Akbari is:
(a) Its pictorial details
(b) Its ancestral details
(c) Its administrative details
(d) Its rich statistical details

Answer

Answer: (d) Its rich statistical details


Question 10.
Meaning of‘diwan’is:
(a) Administrative officer
(b) Legal officer
(c) Financial officer
(d) Revenue officer

Answer

Answer: (c) Financial officer


Question 11.
Red Fort Delhi was built by:
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: (c) Shah Jahan


Question 12.
What was the capital of Mirza Hakim Akbar’s half-brother?
(a) Kabul
(b) Morocco
(c) Sind
(d) Afghan

Answer

Answer: (a) Kabul
Qandahar was seized from the Safavids, Kashmir was annexed, as also Kabul,after the death of Mirza Hakim.


Question 13.
What was the other name of Prince Khurram (Jahangir’son)?
(a) Shahjahan
(b) Jahangir
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Shahjahan
Prince Khurram, the future Emperor Shah Jahan, rebelled in the last years of his reign.


Question 14.
What was the other name of Prince Salim (Akbar’s son)?
(a) Shahjahan
(b) Jahangir
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Jahangir
In the last years of his reign Akbar was distracted by the rebellion of Prince Salim, the future Emperor Jahangir.


Question 15.
In which year, Humayun recaptured Delhi?
(a) 1552
(b) 1553
(c) 1554
(d) 1555

Answer

Answer: (d) 1555
In Iran Humayun received help from the Safavid Shah. He recaptured Delhi in 1555 but died the next year after an accident in this building.


Question 16.
Who was the first Mughal Emperor?
(a) Humayun
(b) Babur
(c) Jahangir
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Babur
Babur, the first Mughal emperor (1526-1530), succeeded to the throne of Ferghana in 1494 when he was only 12 years ol(d)


Question 17.
Who was Abul Fazl?
(a) Akbar counsellor
(b) Akbar friend
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Abul Fazl was Akbar’s friend and counsellor. He wrote the books Akbar Nama and Ain-i Akbari.


Question 18.
How Shahjahan is better known as in the Indian History?
(a) Prince salim
(b) Mirza haqim
(c) Prince khurram
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Prince khurram
Prince Khurram is better known as Emperor Shahjahan in the Indian History.


Question 19.
When was Shivaji insulted?
(a) when he came to accept Marathi authority
(b) when he came to accept Mughal authority
(c) when he decline to accept Mughal authority
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) when he came to accept Mughal authority
Shivaji was insulted by Aurangzeb when he came to accept Mughal authority.


Question 20.
Who was Babur?
(a) Last Mughal emperor
(b) Only Mughal emperor
(c) First Mughal emperor
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) First Mughal emperor
Babur was the first Mughal emperor and reigned from 1526 to 1530.


Question 21.
What were the central provinces under the control of the Mughals?
(a) Lahore
(b) Chittor
(c) Agra
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
The central provinces under the control of the Mughals were Lahore, Panipat, Delhi, Mathura, Agra, Amber, Ajmer, Fatehpur Sikri, Chittor, Ranthambhor and Allahaba.


Match the following

1.

Column I Column II
1. 1st war of Panipat (a) 1570
2. Chausa war (b) 1569
3. Kanauj war (c) 1568
4. Seized the Sisodiya capital of Chittor (d) 1540
5. Seized the capital of Ranthambhor (e) 1539
6. Discussions on religion by Akbar (f) 1526
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 1st war of Panipat (f) 1526
2. Chausa war (e) 1539
3. Kanauj war (d) 1540
4. Seized the Sisodiya capital of Chittor (c) 1568
5. Seized the capital of Ranthambhor (b) 1569
6. Discussions on religion by Akbar (a) 1570

Fill in the blanks

1. Babur succeeded to the throne of ……………. in 1494.

Answer

Answer: Ferghana


2. Aurangzeb insulted ……………. who escaped from Agra and declared himself an independent king.

Answer

Answer: Shivaji


3. Dara Shukoh and his brothers were ……………. .

Answer

Answer: killed


4. The mother of the Jahangir was a ……………. princess.

Answer

Answer: Kachhwaha


5. Modern days Jaipur was earlier called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Amber


6. In Akbar’s reign there were ……………. mansabdars.

Answer

Answer: 29


7. Akbar Nama has ……………. volumes.

Answer

Answer: three


8. Akbar’s empire was divided into provinces called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: subas


9. Nur Jahan was wife of ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Jahangir


10. ‘Sulh-i-kul’ is ……………. .

Answer

Answer: universal peace


Map Skills

1. Find out military campaigns under Akbar and Aurangzeb:
(i) Kashmir (ii) Punjab (iii) Malwa (iv) Berar (v) Ahmadnagar (vi) Bijapur (vii) Golconda (viii) Gondwana (ix) Orissa (x) Bengal

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 4


Hope you found this information on NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 4 The Mughal Empire with Answers Pdf free download useful. We are always here to help, so if there is any specific query or question with CBSE Class 7 Social Science The Mughal Empire Class 7 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answer or any other topic please let us know in the comments below.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Science studies, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 7 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible!

Nutrition in Plants Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving Nutrition in Plants Multiple Choice Questions of Class 7 Science Chapter 1 MCQ can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Nutrition in Plants Class 7 with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
The plant which traps and feeds on insects is:
(a) Cuscuta
(b) China rosa
(c) Pitcher plant
(d) Rose

Answer

Answer: (a)
Pitcher plant is the plant which traps and feeds on insects.


Question 2.
Plants take carbon dioxide from the atmosphere mainly through their:
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Flowers
(d) Leaves

Answer

Answer: (a)
Plants take carbon dioxide from the atmosphere mainly through their leaves.


Question 3.
The internal factor affecting the process of photosynthesis is:
(a) Temperature
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Light
(d) Water

Answer

Answer: (a)
Chlorophyll is the internal factor affecting the process of photosynthesis.


Question 4.
Organisms need nutrition to:
(a) Obtain energy
(b) Fight against diseases
(c) Grow
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Organisms need nutrition to obtain energy, fight against diseases and grow.


Question 5.
The chemical used in starch test is:
(a) Safranin
(b) Blue ink
(c) Iodine
(d) Litmus

Answer

Answer: (a)
Iodine is the chemical used in starch test.


Question 6.
Pitcher plant falls in the category of:
(a) Herbivore
(b) Insectivore
(c) Carnivore
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Pitcher plant falls in the category of insectivore.


Question 7.
Parasites:
(a) live on dead organisms
(b) eat animals
(c) prepare their own food
(d) live on other living beings

Answer

Answer: (a)
Parasites live on other living beings.


Question 8.
Water reaches the leaves from the root by:
(a) Stomata
(b) Phloem
(c) Xylem
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Water reaches the leaves from root by xylem.


Question 9.
It is not advisable to sit under the trees at night because:
(a) Carbon dioxide ratio is higher under the trees at night
(b) Trees sleep at night
(c) Plants make food during the night
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
It is not advisable to sit under the trees at night because carbon dioxide ratio is higher under the trees at night.


Question 10.
The gas used from the atmosphere during photosynthesis is:
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Oxygen

Answer

Answer: (a)
Carbon dioxide is the gas used from the atmosphere during photosynthesis.


Question 11.
The ultimate source of energy for all living organisms is:
(a) Plants
(b) Sun
(c) Oxygen
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Sun is the ultimate source of energy for all living organisms.


Question 12.
Product of photosynthesis are:
(a) Carbon dioxide and oxygen
(b) Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide
(c) Carbohydrate and oxygen
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Carbohydrate and oxygen are product of photosynthesis.


Question 13.
A parasitic plant with yellow, slender and tubular stem is:
(a) Pitcher plant
(b) Cuscuta
(c) Sunflower
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Cuscuta is a parasitic plant with yellow slender and tubular stem.


Question 14.
The mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients in solution form from dead and decaying matter is:
(a) Heterotrophic nutrition
(b) Autotrophic nutrition
(c) Saprotrophic nutrition
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Saprotrophic nutrition is the mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients in solution form from dead and decaying matter.


Question 15.
Which of the following shows symbiotic relationship ?
(a) Lichens
(b) Rhizobium bacteria and leguminous plants
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Lichens, Rhizobium bacteria and Leguminous plants both show symbiotic relationship.


Question 16.
The process by which green plants prepare their own food is known as:
(a) Transpiration
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Respiration
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants prepare their own food.


Question 17.
Stomata are present on:
(a) Stems
(b) Leaves
(c) Flowers
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Stomata are present on leaves.


Question 18.
Which of the following is insectivorous plant ?
(a) Mushroom
(b) Fungi
(c) Pitcher
(d) Cuscuta

Answer

Answer: (a)
Pitcher is insectivorous plant.


Question 19.
Rhizobium is a:
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Algae
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Rhizobium is a bacteria.


Question 20.
Two different organisms living together and both benefitted from each other, are called as:
(a) Saprophytic
(b) Parasitic
(c) Heterotrophic
(d) Symbiotic

Answer

Answer: (a)
Two different organisms living together and both benefitted from each other, are called as Symbiotic.


Question 21.
Green plants are known as:
(a) Heterotrophs
(b) Autotrophs
(c) Saprotrophs
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
Green plants are known as Autotrophs.


Question 22.
Which of the following is not required for photosynthesis:
(a) Sunlight
(b) Water
(c) Oxygen
(d) Carbon dioxide

Answer

Answer: (a)
Carbon dioxide is not required for photosynthesis.


Question 23.
The components of food necessary for our body are:
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Vitamins
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
The components of food necessary for our body are carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins.


Question 24.
The gas produced during photosynthesis is:
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
The gas produced during photosynthesis is oxygen.


Question 25.
The solar energy is captured by which part of the plant ?
(a) Stem
(b) Leaves
(c) Root
(d) Flower

Answer

Answer: (a)
The solar energy is captured by leaves of the plant.


Question 26.
The pores on the lower surface of leaf are:
(a) Stomata
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Xylem
(d) Phloem

Answer

Answer: (a)
The pores on the lower surface of leaf are stomata.


Question 27.
Which of the following is not an end product of photosynthesis ?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Water vapour
(d) Glucose

Answer

Answer: (a)
Carbon dioxide is not an end product of photosynthesis.


Question 28.
The external factor affecting the process of photosynthesis is:
(a) Oxygen
(b) Temperature
(c) Chlorophyll
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)
The external factor affecting the process of photosynthesis is temperature.


Question 29.
Which part of the plant gets carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis ?
(a) Root hair
(b) Leaf veins
(c) Sepals
(d) Stomata

Answer

Answer: (a)
Stomata gets carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis.


Question 30.
Amarbel is an example of:
(a) Autotroph
(b) Parasite
(c) Saprotroph
(d) Host

Answer

Answer: (a)
Amarbel is an example of Parasite.


Match Column A with Column B:

Question 1.

Column A Column B
(a) Chlorophyll (i) Bacteria
(b) Nitrogen (ii) Heterotrophs
(c) Amarbel (iii) Pitcher plant
(d) Animals (iv) Leaf
(e) Insects (v) Parasite
Answer
Column A Column B
(a) Chlorophyll (iv) Leaf
(b) Nitrogen (i) Bacteria
(c) Amarbel (v) Parasite
(d) Animals (ii) Heterotrophs
(e) Insects (iii) Pitcher plant

Question 2.

Column A Column B
(a) Two different organisms live together and both are mutually benefitted (i) water, sunlight, oxygen
(b) Food factory of plants (ii) symbiosis
(c) Organisms living on other organisms and deriving food from them (iii) stomata
(d) Tiny pores present in leaves (iv) leaf
(e) Required plants to prepare food (v) parasitic
Answer
Column A Column B
(a) Two different organisms live together and both are mutually benefitted (ii) symbiosis
(b) Food factory of plants (iv) leaf
(c) Organisms living on other organisms and deriving food from them (v) parasitic
(d) Tiny pores present in leaves (iii) stomata
(e) Required plants to prepare food (i) water, sunlight, oxygen

Question 3.

Column A Column B
(a) Saprotrophic nutrition (i) Algae
(b) Insectivorous plant (ii) Fungi
(c) Autotrophic nutrition (iii) Algae and fungus
(d) Lichens (iv) Pitcher
Answer
Column A Column B
(a) Saprotrophic nutrition (ii) Fungi
(b) Insectivorous plant (iv) Pitcher
(c) Autotrophic nutrition (i) Algae
(d) Lichens (iii) Algae and fungus

State whether the following statements are ‘True’ or ‘False’:

Question 1.
Tiny openings present in leaf surface is called stomata.

Answer

True


Question 2.
Phbtosynthesis cannot take place in dark.

Answer

True


Question 3.
Bread moujd is a‘ saprophyte.

Answer

True


Question 4.
Parasites grow on the bodies of hosts.

Answer

True


Question 5.
Carbon dioxide is released during the process of photosynthesis.

Answer

False


Question 6.
The product of photosynthesis is carbohydrate.

Answer

True


Question 7.
Solar energy is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis.

Answer

True


Question 8.
Sun in not the ultimate source of energy for all living organisms.

Answer

False


Question 9.
Plants which synthesise their food themselves are called saprotrophs.

Answer

False


Question 10.
Green plants have autotrophic nutrition.

Answer

True


Question 11.
Fungi prepare their own food by photosynthesis.

Answer

False


Question 12.
Solar energy is stored in the form of food in the leaves with the help of chlorophyll.

Answer

True


Question 13.
Transpiration is the process by which plants lose water in the form of water vapour.

Answer

True


Question 14.
Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll.

Answer

True


Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Starch gives a blue-black colour with a solution of ……………………….

Answer

iodine


Question 2.
………………………. is the site of photosynthesis in plants.

Answer

Leaf


Question 3.
Autotrophs are all ………………………. plants.

Answer

green


Question 4.
During photosynthesis, the chlorophyll traps the energy from ……………………….

Answer

sun


Question 5.
………………………. is an example of symbiotic association.

Answer

Lichen


Question 6.
Green plants manufacture their own food, hence they are called ……………………….

Answer

autotrophs


Question 7.
On testing with iodine, starch turns, ………………………. in colour.

Answer

blue


Question 8.
Lichen is the mutual combination of ………………………. and ………………………..

Answer

algae and fungus


Question 9.
………………………. is an organelle present in the leaves that contain chlorophyll.

Answer

Chloroplast


Question 10.
Saprophytic plants lack ……………………….

Answer

chlorophyll


Question 11.
………………………. is released during photosynthesis.

Answer

Oxygen


Question 12.
A fungus we like to eat is ……………………….

Answer

mushroom


Question 13.
Mode of nutrition in algae is ………………………..

Answer

autotrophic


Question 14.
An example of parasite is ………………………..

Answer

cuscuta


Question 15.
Stomata are surrounded by ………………………. cells.

Answer

guard


Question 16.
Green plants are called ………………………. since they synthesize their own food.

Answer

autotrophs


Question 17.
The food synthesized by the plants is stored as ………………………..

Answer

carbohydrates


Question 18.
In photosynthesis, solar energy is captured by the pigment called ……………………….

Answer

chlorophyll


Question 19.
During photosynthesis, plants take in ………………………. and release ………………………..

Answer

carbon dioxide, oxygen.


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MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources with Answers

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Resources Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving MCQ on Resources Class 8 with Answers can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These Class 8 SST Geography Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Find any one among the following which is considered as an important factor that can change substances into resources.
(a) Technology
(b) Stock
(c) Distribution
(d) Origin

Answer

Answer: (a) Technology


Question 2.
Resources that are found everywhere are termed as
(a) localised
(b) biotic
(c) ubiquitous
(d) non-renewable

Answer

Answer: (c) ubiquitous


Question 3.
Using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called
(a) sustainable development
(b) human resources development
(b) stock of resources
(d) resource conservation

Answer

Answer: (d) resource conservation


Question 4.
The rich deposit of coal in Ruhr region of which country.
(a) India
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) U.S.A

Answer

Answer: (c) Germany


Question 5.
What makes an object or substance a resource is its
(a) utility
(b) origin
(c) stock
(d) patent

Answer

Answer: (a) utility


Question 6.
Using resources carefully, judicially & giving them time to get renewed is called ……………..
(a) Resource Development
(b) Sustainable Conservation
(c) Sustainable Development
(d) Resource Conservation

Answer

Answer: (d) Resource Conservation


Question 7.
Factors which help in the development of resources are:
(a) All (b, c & d)
(b) Human Resource
(c) Technology
(d) International Competition

Answer

Answer: (a) All (b, c & d)


Question 8.
Resources created by human beings are called ………………
(a) Natural Resource
(b) Useful Resource
(c) Industrial Resource
(d) Man Made Resource

Answer

Answer: (d) Man Made Resource


Question 9.
Value means ………………
(a) Utility
(b) Worth
(c) Money
(d) Wealth

Answer

Answer: (b) Worth


Question 10.
People use natural resources to make buildings, bridges, roads, machinery and vehicles, which are known as ………………
(a) Human Made Resource
(b) Human Resource
(c) Natural Resource
(d) Un-Natural Resource

Answer

Answer: (a) Human Made Resource


Question 11.
Which one of the following is not a “Value”?
(a) Aesthetic Value
(b) Economic Value
(c) Artistic Value
(d) Ethical Value

Answer

Answer: (c) Artistic Value


Question 12.
A thing becomes a resource when it’s ……………… has been identified.
(a) Character
(b) Area
(c) Utility
(d) Availability

Answer

Answer: (c) Utility


Write true (T) or false (F)

1. Using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called sustainable development.

Answer

Answer: False


2. People are human resources.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Stock of resources is the amount of resource available for use.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Resources that are found everywhere are localised.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Technology means the exclusive right over any idea or invention.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the following

1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Utility (a) exclusive right over any idea or invention.
2. Patent (b) amount of resources available for us.
3. Value (c) found only in certain places
4. localised (d) worth
5. Stock of resources (e) usability
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Utility (e) usability
2. Patent (a) exclusive right over any idea or invention.
3. Value (d) worth
4. localised (c) found only in certain places
5. Stock of resources (b) amount of resources available for us.

Fill in the blanks

1. Utility or ……………………… is what makes an object or substances a resource.

Answer

Answer: usability


2. ……………………… means worth.

Answer

Answer: Value


3. ……………………… resources are those resources whose quantity is known.

Answer

Answer: Actual


4. The distribution of natural resources depends upon number of ……………………… factors like terrain, climate and altitude.

Answer

Answer: physical


5. Human resources refer to the number and ……………………… of the people.

Answer

Answer: abilities


6. Natural substances become resources only when their ……………………… form has been changed.

Answer

Answer: original


Picture Based Questions

1.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 1

1. Under which resource category the above pic has been categorised?
2. How do wind fans generate energy?

Answer

Answer:
1. Under the category of Potential Resources.
2. Wind fans generate energy using windcycles.


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MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 3 The Delhi Sultans with Answers

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The Delhi Sultans Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving MCQ on The Delhi Sultans Class 7 with Answers can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on The Delhi Sultans Class 7 with answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
Rudramadevi ruled Kakatiya dynasty from:
(a) 1262 to 1289
(b) 1130-1145
(c) 1165-1192
(d) 1414-1451

Answer

Answer: (a) 1262 to 1289


Question 2.
The Delhi Sultans were dependent upon:
(a) Trade, tribute or plunder for supplies
(b) Taxes from tourists
(c) Taxes from Artisans
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) Trade, tribute or plunder for supplies


Question 3.
Name of the first mosque built by Sultans in Delhi is:
(a) JamaMasjid
(b) Moth ki Masjid
(c) Quwwat al-Islam
(d) Jamali Kamali Masjid

Answer

Answer: (c) Quwwat al-Islam


Question 4.
Who built the mosque Quwwat al-Islam?
(a) Ghiyasuddin Balban
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Raziyya Sultan
(d) Alauddin Khalji

Answer

Answer: (b) Iltutmish


Question 5.
Which mosque is “Sanctuary of the World”?
(a) Begumpuri Mosque
(b) Moth Mosque
(c) Neeli Mosque
(d) Jamali Kamali Mosque

Answer

Answer: (a) Begumpuri Mosque


Question 6.
Ziyauddin Barani was:
(a) An archaeologist;
(b) A warrior;
(c) Sultan
(d) A Muslim political thinker of the Delhi Sultanate

Answer

Answer: (d) A Muslim political thinker of the Delhi Sultanate


Question 7.
Ibn Battuta belonged from:
(a) Iran
(b) Morocco
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China

Answer

Answer: (b) Morocco


Question 8.
Sher Shah Suri started his career as:
(a) Accountant
(b) Soldier
(c) Manager
(d) Traveller

Answer

Answer: (c) Manager


Question 9.
Ghiyasuddin Balban was Sultan of dynasty:
(a) Khalji
(b) Tughluq
(c) Sayyid
(d) Turkish

Answer

Answer: (b) Tughluq


Question 10.
A Garrison town is:
(а) A fortified settlement, with soldiers
(b) A settlement of peasants
(c) A settlement of ruler
(d) A settlement of town where special river was carried

Answer

Answer: (а) A fortified settlement, with soldiers


Question 11.
What was the duty of the muqtis?
(a) To lead rulers
(b) To lead military campaigns
(c) To lead country
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) To lead military campaigns
The duty of the muqtis was to lead military campaigns and maintain law and order in their iqtas.


Question 12.
Kharaj was a type of tax imposed on what?
(a) Houses
(b) Trade
(c) Cattle
(d) Cultivation

Answer

Answer: (d) Cultivation
Kharaj was a type of tax imposed on cultivation and amounting to about 50per cent of the peasant’s produce.


Question 13.
Who introduced token currency?
(a) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Raziyya
(d) Khizr Khan

Answer

Answer: (a) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq
Muhammad Tughluq paid his soldiers cash salaries. But instead of controlling prices, he used token currency, somewhat like present-day paper currency, but made out of cheap metals, not gold and silver.


Question 14.
What is the direction that the Muslims face during prayer?
(a) Khutba
(b) Ulema
(c) Kharaj
(d) Qibla

Answer

Answer: (d) Qibla
During prayer, Muslims stand facing Mecc(a) In India this is to the west. This is called the qibl(a)


Question 15.
What is fortified settlement of soldiers is known as?
(a) Hinterland
(b) Garrison town
(c) The Masjid
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Garrison town
Garrison town is a fortified settlement with soldiers.


Question 16.
What were Garrison towns?
(a) Fortified settlements with soldiers
(b) Fortified settlements with rulers
(c) Fortified settlement with Persian
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Fortified settlements with soldiers
Garrison towns were fortified settlements with soldiers.


Question 17.
Name the mosque built in the reign of Sikandar Lodi?
(a) Moti ki masjid
(b) Begumpuri Mosque
(c) Jama masjid
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Moti ki masjid
Begumpuri Mosque built in the reign of Muhammad Tuglaq and Moth ki Masjid built in the reign of Sikandar Lodi.


Question 18.
Name the mosque built in the reign of Muhammad Tugluq?
(a) Moti ki masjid
(b) Begumpuri Mosque
(c) Jama masjid
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Begumpuri Mosque
Begumpuri Mosque built in the reign of Muhammad Tuglaq and Moth ki Masjid built in the reign of Sikandar Lodi.


Question 19.
Why was Raziyya removed from the throne?
(a) Raziyya was not qualified
(b) Raziyya was under age
(c) Raziyya was women
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Raziyya was women
Though Raziyya was more able and qualified than her brothers but being a woman ruler she was not favoured by anyone and finally dethroned in 1240.


Question 20.
Which ruler first established his or her capital at Delhi?
(a) Tomara Rajputs
(b) Angpal
(c) Patwari
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Tomara Rajputs
The Tomara Rajputs were the first rulers who established their capital at Delhi.


Match the following

1.

Column I Column II
1. Ananga Pala (a) 1451-1489
2. Jalaluddin Khalji (b) 1351-1388
3. Bahlul Lodi (c) 1414-1421
4. Firuz Shah Tughluq (d) 1290-1296
5. Raziyya (e) 1130-1145
6. Khizr Khan (f) 1236-1240
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Ananga Pala (e) 1130-1145
2. Jalaluddin Khalji (d) 1290-1296
3. Bahlul Lodi (a) 1451-1489
4. Firuz Shah Tughluq (b) 1351-1388
5. Raziyya (f) 1236-1240
6. Khizr Khan (c) 1414-1421

Fill in the blanks

1. Many rich Jaina merchants lived in the city and constructed several ……………. .

Answer

Answer: temples


2. The Delhi Sultans built many ……………. in the area.

Answer

Answer: cities


3. ……………. was queen of Kakatiya dynasty of Warangal.

Answer

Answer: Rudramadevi


4. Rudramadevi changed her name and pretended she was a ……………. .

Answer

Answer: man


5. Controlling garrison towns (army towns) in distance from Delhi was ……………. .

Answer

Answer: extremely difficult


6. The consolidation of Delhi Sultanate needed reliable ……………. and …………….

Answer

Answer: governors and administrators


7. Raziyya Sultan was daughter of ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Shamsuddin Iltutmish


8. Khizr Khan was from ……………. dynasty.

Answer

Answer: Sayyid


9. Delhi first became the capital of a kingdom under the ……………. dynasty.

Answer

Answer: Tomara


10. Iqtadar was also known as ……………. .

Answer

Answer: muqti


Map Skills

1. Show the campaign of Alauddin Khalji’s into south India.

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 3


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MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 2 New Kings and Kingdoms with Answers

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New Kings and Kingdoms Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Question 1.
Sultan Mahmud Ghazni was from:
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Iran
(c) Tanzania
(d) Iraq

Answer

Answer: (a) Afghanistan


Question 2.
Who was the first emperor of the Cholas?
(a) Vijayalaya Chola,
(b) Rajendra Chola
(c) Aditya Chola
(d) Uttam Chola

Answer

Answer: (a) Vijayalaya Chola,


Question 3.
Cholas mainly ruled in the State:
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Kashmir
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu


Question 4.
Who Built Thanjavur?
(a) Vijayalaya Chola
(b) Sultan Mahmud Ghazni
(c) Rajendra
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Vijayalaya Chola


Question 5.
Which one was not in ‘tripartite struggle’ dynasties?
(a) Gurjara-Pratihara
(b) Rashtrakuta and
(c) Pala dynasties
(d) The Cholas

Answer

Answer: (d) The Cholas


Question 6.
Chalukyas were concerned to the state:
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kashmir
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (a) Karnataka


Question 7.
Temple of Cholapuram ‘Gangaikonda’ was built in the year:
(a) 1000 AD
(b) 1035 AD
(c) 1050 AD
(d) 1100 AD

Answer

Answer: (b) 1035 AD


Question 8.
Which river was used for the agriculture purpose by the Cholas?
(a) Sindh
(b) Ganga
(c) Kaveri
(d) Yamuna

Answer

Answer: (c) Kaveri


Question 9.
Dining the period temples were also hub of:
(a) Economic life
(b) Social life
(c) Cultural life
(d) All the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above.


Question 10.
What is ‘brahmadeya’?
(a) Lands grants to Brahmanas;
(b) Lands grants to peasants;
(c) Lands grant to warriors;
(d) Lands grant to poets;

Answer

Answer: (a) Lands grants to Brahmanas;


Question 11.
When did the first battle of tarain fought?
(a) 1191
(b) 1195
(c) 1193
(d) 1194

Answer

Answer: (a) 1191
Prithviraj Chauhan defeated Mohammed Ghori in 1191 in first battle of Tarain but later on in 1192, he was defeated in second battle of Tarain by Ghori.


Question 12.
Who was considered as the most powerful chola ruler?
(a) Babur
(b) Rajendra
(c) Rajaraja
(d) Prithviraj Chauhan

Answer

Answer: (c) Rajaraja
Rajaraja I, considered the most powerful Chola ruler, became king in 985 and expanded control over most of these areas. He also reorganised the administration of the empire.


Question 13.
Land granted to Brahmans was recorded on what?
(a) Silver plates
(b) Betel leaves
(c) Iron plates
(d) Copper plates

Answer

Answer: (d) Copper plates
Kings often rewarded Brahmans by grants of land. These were recorded on copper plates, which were given to those who received the land.


Question 14.
Rashtrakutas were subordinate to what?
(a) Cheras
(b) Cholas
(c) Chalukyas
(d) None of the

Answer

Answer: (c) Chalukyas
One powerful instance was that of the Rashtrakutas in the Deccan. Initially they were subordinate to the Chalukyas.


Question 15.
Many new dynasties emerged after which century?
(a) Fifteenth century
(b) Seventh century
(c) Twelfth century
(d) Eleventh century

Answer

Answer: (b) Seventh century
Many new dynasties emerged after the seventh century.


Question 16.
Who were called nadu?
(a) Group of females
(b) Group of villages
(c) Group of males
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Group of villages
The larger units of the groups of `ur’ or villages were called nadu.


Question 17.
Who wrote Kitabal-Hind?
(a) Kalhana
(b) Dantidurga
(c) Al-Baruni
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Al-Baruni
A great Arab poet Al-Baruni wrote Kitab-al-Hind.


Question 18.
Who were the parties involved in ‘tripartite struggle’?
(a) Gurjaras
(b) Palas
(c) Rashtrakutas
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
The parties involved in the tripartite struggle were Gurjaras, Palas and Rashtrakutas.


Question 19.
What were the major cities under the control of the Chahamanas?
(a) Delhi
(b) Ajmer
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Delhi and Ajmer were the two major cities under the control of the Chahamanas.


Question 20.
Who was Dantidurga?
(a) Rastrakutas chief
(b) Cholas chief
(c) Chalukyas chief
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Rastrakutas chief
Dantidurga was a Rastrakutas chief who turned to be a Kshatriya after performing a ritual known as hiranya-garbha.


Match the following

1.

Column I Column II
1. Vellanvagai (a) Land for the maintenance of a school
2. Brahmadeya (b) Land of non-Brahmanas Peasant Proprietors
3. Shalabhoga (c) Land gifted to Brahmanas
4. Devadana (d) Land donated to Jaina institutions
5. pallichchhandam (e) Land gifted to temples
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Vellanvagai (b) Land of non-Brahmanas Peasant Proprietors
2. Brahmadeya (c) Land gifted to Brahmanas
3. Shalabhoga (a) Land for the maintenance of a school
4. Devadana (e) Land gifted to temples
5. pallichchhandam (d) Land donated to Jaina institutions

Fill in the blanks

1. Nagabhata was a ……………. King.

Answer

Answer: Pratihara


2. The language of prashasti found in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh is ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Sanskrit


3. ‘Kalhana’ was a ……………. .

Answer

Answer: author


4. ……………. was the way to control others areas.

Answer

Answer: Warfare


5. Chahamanas are also known as ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Chauhans


6. Sultan Mahmud of ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Ghazni


7. A book ‘Kitab-al-Hind’ was written in the language ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Arabic


8. Muttaraiyar were subordinate to ……………. .

Answer

Answer: the Pallava Kings of Kanchipuram


9. Tang dynasty was established in ……………. .

Answer

Answer: China


10. A famous temple of Chola situated in Cholapuram is called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Gangaikonda


Picture Based Questions

1.
MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 2
Look the temple given and give the answer:
(i) Who built this temple and when?
(ii) Who and when built this temple?
(iii) Where is this situated?
(iv) To whom is temple dedicated?

Answer

Answer: (i) Gangaikonda temple.
(ii) The temple was built by Rajendra in 1035 AD. Rajendra was a king of Chola dynasty.
(iii) Situated in Cholapuram, Distt.:Ariyalur Tamil Nadu.
(iv) Mainly dedicated to Bhagwan Shiva.


Map Skills

In the given map locate the followings Regimes:
(i) Cholas Regime
(ii) Palas Regime
(iii) Rashtrakutas Regime
(iv) Chauhans Regime

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 2


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MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 10 Law and Social Justice with Answers

If you’re looking for a way to enhance your Social Science, then look no further than the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 10 Law and Social Justice with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers is perfect for those who are in class 8 and want to get ahead of everyone else by mastering their subject skills as soon as possible! So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 10 Civics Objective Questions.

Law and Social Justice Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving MCQ on Law and Social Justice Class 8 with Answers can be of great help to students as they will be aware of all the concepts. These Class 8 SST Civics Chapter 10 MCQ with Answers pave for a quick revision, thereby helping you learn more about this subject.

Question 1.
According to ………………………. census over 12 million children in India aged between 5 and 14 work in various occupations including hazardous ones.
(a) 2002
(b) 2001
(c) 2011
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) 2001


Question 2.
Which gas has been leaked from UC plant in Bhopal gas tragedy.
(a) Nitrogen oxide
(b) Methyl – isocyanite
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbon monooxide

Answer

Answer: (b) Methyl – isocyanite


Question 3.
In which years did the Bhopal gas tragedy happen?
(a) 1984
(b) 1994
(c) 1992
(d) 1985

Answer

Answer: (a) 1984


Question 4.
Right to Life is under which Article of the Constitution?
(a) Art 22
(b) Art 25
(c) Art 23
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above


Question 5.
Emissions from vehicles are a major cause of
(a) Environmental pollution
(b) Air pollution
(c) soil pollution
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Environmental pollution


Question 6.
What are Power looms?
(a) Small units with 4 – 6 looms
(b) Workers of textile mile
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) & (b)
Power looms are small units with 4-6 looms. The owners operate them with hired and family labor. It is well known that conditions of work in the power looms are far from satisfactory.


Question 7.
The government of India gives what status to deny workers from their wages?
(a) legal
(b) Justice
(c) Illegal
(d) All of above

Answer

Answer: (c) Illegal
It is Illegal by government to deny workers from their wages. To stop injustice with unpaid workers government of India made it illegal.


Question 8.
Where did the Supreme Court of India is located?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Punjab
(c) Haryana
(d) New Delhi

Answer

Answer: (d) New Delhi
The Supreme Court of India is located in New Delhi. On 26 January 1950 Supreme Court of India was established.


Question 9.
Under which articles the Right to Life is provided to people?
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 25
(d) 24

Answer

Answer: (a) 21
Right to life is a Fundamental Right under Article 21 of the Constitution and it includes the right to the enjoyment of pollution-free water.


Question 10.
All persons are equal before whom?
(a) Police
(b) Minister
(c) Law
(d) Court

Answer

Answer: (c) Law
All persons are equal before law. Rights are available to all Indians equally. It is the principle that each independent human being must be treated equally by the law and that all people are subject to the same laws of justice.


Question 11.
How can the government ensure social justice?
(a) By enforcing less money
(b) By enforcing laws
(c) By enforcing command
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) By enforcing laws
Through making, enforcing and upholding laws, the government can control the activities of individuals or private companies and thus, ensure social justice.


Question 12.
What does the Right against Exploitation state?
(a) No promotion in salary is given
(b) No one can force to work
(c) No salary is given
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) No one can force to work
The Right against Exploitation states that no one can be forced to work under bondage or for low wages. Similarly, the Constitution lays down no child below the age of 14 shall be employed to work in any factory or mines or any other hazardous employment.


Question 13.
(a) Cheap labor
(b) Cheap transportation
(c) Higher demands
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cheap labor
Foreign companies come to India for cheap labor. Wages that the companies pay to workers say in the U.S.A. are far higher than what they have to pay to workers in poorer countries like India.


Question 14.
Why do we need laws?
(a) To protect our right
(b) To protect our goods
(c) To protect our labor
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) To protect our right
We need laws to protect our rights. To protect people from exploitation, the government makes certain laws. These laws try to ensure that the unfair practices are kept at a minimum in the markets.


Question 15.
What is a market?
(a) Place of depositing money
(b) Place of selling and buying things
(c) Place of hiring labor
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Place of selling and buying things
A market is that place where the process of buying and selling takes place. Markets everywhere tend to be exploitative of people whether as workers, consumers or producers.


Write true (T) or false (F)

1. With the law on minimum wages which is meant to protect workers, there are also laws that protect the interests of producers and consumers in the market.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Power looms are small units with 4-6 looms.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Right against Exploitation says that no one can be forced to work for low wages or under bondage.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Methyl – isocyanite (MIC) – a highly poisonous gas – started leaking from this U.C plant.

Answer

Answer: True


5. Between 1980 and 1984, the crew for the MIC plant was increased from 6 to 12 workers.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the following

1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Installation of an MIC Production unit (a) Cut in half from 12 to 6.
2. Methyl – isocyanite (MIC) (b) Compressed Natural Gas.
3. Aziza Sultan (c) Survivor of Bhopal gas tragedy
4. C.N.G (d) A highly poisonous gas started leaking from U.C plant
5. Between 1980 and 1984 the work crew for the MIC plant (e) 1978
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Installation of an MIC Production unit (e) 1978
2. Methyl – isocyanite (MIC) (d) A highly poisonous gas started leaking from U.C plant
3. Aziza Sultan (b) Compressed Natural Gas.
4. C.N.G (c) Survivor of Bhopal gas tragedy
5. Between 1980 and 1984 the work crew for the MIC plant (a) Cut in half from 12 to 6.

Fill in the blanks

1. ……………………… countries – particularly India, Bangladesh and Pakistan – play hosts for industries producing pesticides, asbestos or processing zinc and lea(d)

Answer

Answer: South Asian


2. The government has to make ……………………… and also has to enforce them.

Answer

Answer: appropriate laws


3. The Supreme Court had ordered all public transport vehicle using diesel to switch to ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)


4. In ………………………, there were very few laws protecting the environment in Indi(a)

Answer

Answer: 1984


5. In case of ……………………… (1991), the Supreme Court held that the Right to Life is Fundamental Right under Art 21 of the Constitution and it includes right to the enjoyment of water and air for full enjoyment of life.

Answer

Answer: Subhash Kumar vs State of Bihar, Pollution free


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